1. Which technology supports the stateless assignment of IPv6 addresses?




D. autoconfiguration


2. What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)

a. exactly one active router

b. one or more standby routers

c. one or more backup virtual routers

d. exactly one standby active router

e. exactly one backup virtual router


3. After you configure the Loopback0 interface, which command can you enter to
verify the status of the interface and determine whether fast switching is enabled?

a. Router#show ip interface loopback 0

b. Router#show run

c. Router#show interface loopback 0

d. Router#show ip interface brief


4. Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and assign it to an in­
terface on a switch?

a. Switch(config)#vlan 20

Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y

Switch(config­if)#switchport access vlan 20

b. Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y

Switch(config­if)#vlan 20

Switch(config­vlan)#switchport access vlan 20

c. Switch(config)#vlan 20

Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20

Switch(config­if)#switchport trunk native vlan 20

d. Switch(config)#vlan 20

Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20

Switch(config­if)#switchport access vlan 20

e. Switch(config)#vlan 20

Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20

Switch(config­if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 20


5. Which three commands can you use to set a router boot image? (Choose three.)

a. Router(config)# boot system flash c4500­p­mz.121­20.bin

b. Router(config)# boot system tftp c7300­js­mz.122­33.SB8a.bin

c. Router(config)#boot system rom c7301­advipservicesk9­mz.124­24.T4.bin

d. Router> boot flash:c180x­adventerprisek9­mz­124­6T.bin

e. Router(config)#boot flash:c180x­adventerprisek9­mz­124­6T.bin

f. Router(config)#boot bootldr bootflash:c4500­jk9s­mz.122­23f.bin


6. Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)

a. Link­local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.

b. OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.

c. EIGRP, OSPF, and BGP are the only routing protocols that support IPv6.

d. Loopback addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.

e. EIGRPv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.


) a.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1 b. ANSWER: A. e. B 9. 7. They are frames that exceed 1518 bytes.0.0. router(config)#ip route 0.255. a switch with priority 20480 b. a switch with priority 8192 c. They indicate received frames that did not pass the FCS match. c. they occur after the 512th bit of the frame has been transmitted.255 GigabitEthernet0/1 .0. a switch with priority 12288 ANSWER: A 8.0. Which two statements about late collisions are true? (Choose two.255.0.0 0. By definition. They occur when CRC errors and interference occur on the cable. They may indicate a duplex mismatch. router(config)#ip route 0. If primary and secondary root switches with priority 16384 both experience cata­ strophic losses. d.0 255. which tertiary switch can take over? a. b. Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an inter­ face? a. a switch with priority 4096 d.

1 b. B 11. router(config­router)#default­information originate d. 8 ANSWER: C . listening c. discarding ANSWER: A. blocking b.) a.c. router(config­router)#default­information originate always ANSWER: A 10. 2 c. Which two spanning­tree port states does RSTP combine to allow faster conver­ gence? (Choose two. how many broadcast domains are present on the router? a. learning d. 4 d. forwarding e. If a router has four interfaces and each interface is connected to four switches.

0. 10.0.0. 10.1.0/22 subnet mask will include the 10. ipv6 local b.0 /22 c. 10. What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes? a.0.0 networks. 12.0. 10. ipv6 neighbor ANSWER: C 13.2.0 /21 b. 10.0. Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router? a. . Refer to the exhibit. ipv6 host c.0. and only those four networks. and ipv6 unicast­routing d.0.0.0 /24 ANSWER: B The /23 d.

the EIGRP route c. switch(config­if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config­if)#switchport port­security mac­address 1 c. 14. switch(config­if)#switchport mode access switch(config­if)#switchport port­security maximum 1 d. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table? a. the OSPF route b. all three routes e. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes . switch(config­if)#switchport mode access switch(config­if)#switchport port­security mac­address 1 ANSWER: C 15. Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer? a. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. switch(config­if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config­if)#switchport port­security maximum 1 b. the RIPv2 route d. A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destina­ tion network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560.

insufficient bandwidth c. but they are unable to communicate. IPCP closed ANSWER: D . incorrect subnet mask d. incompatible IP address b. The Atlanta router is known to have the correct configuration.ANSWER: B 16. identify the fault on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of connectivity a. Given the partial configurations. incompatible encapsulation e. Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected via their serial interfaces as illustrated. link reliability too low f.

1 Main(config­if)# no shut b. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config­if)# ip address 172. The router at the remote office is a non­Cisco router.1 255.255. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config­if)# ip address 172. 17.1 255.1. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config­if)#ip address A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location.255. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config­if)# ip address 172.1 Main(config­if)# encapsulation ppp Main(config­if)# no shut c.255.255.255. How should the net­ work administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection? a.255.255.252 Main(config­if)# encapsulation frame­relay Main(config­if)# authentication chap Main(config­if)# no shut d.16.252 Main(config­if)#encapsulation ietf Main(config­if)# no shut ANSWER: B .

25 d. 18. Frame Relay ANSWER: B 19. b. Refer to the exhibit. d. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three. Ensure the switch has power. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.) a. X. Ensure that cables A and B are straight­through cables. c. . HDLC b. PPP c. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchro­ nous circuits and has built­in security mechanisms? a.

b. c. what is the cause of this problem? a. f. The cost on R1 should be set higher. ANSWER: B. The OSPF process ID numbers must match. F 20. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network. D. f. Reboot all of the devices. A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. d. . e. The OSPF area is not configured properly. Reseat all cables. The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.e. The priority on R1 should be set higher.

What is the cause of the problem? a. The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. The routers cannot be configured to authenticate to each other. c. The NAT process will be used to translate this address to a valid IP address. e. b.ANSWER: D 21. CHAP authentication cannot be used on a serial interface. What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP? a. d. ANSWER: A 22. The usernames are incorrectly configured on the two routers. Refer to the exhibit. b. The routers cannot be connected from interface S0/0 to interface S0/0. A conflict of IP addresses happens. d. one router must authenticate to another router. because other public routers can use the same range. Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network. Addresses in a private range will be not be routed on the Internet backbone. . c. The passwords do not match on the two routers. With CHAP authentication.

) . What two functions will occur when this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup­configuration file. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup­configuration file if frames from that address are received. What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch? Switch(config­if)# switchport port­security Switch(config­if)# switchport port­security mac­address sticky a. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running­configuration file if frames from that address are received. The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch. 2950Switch(config­if)# switchport port­security 2950Switch(config­if)# switchport port­security mac­address sticky 2950Switch(config­if)# switchport port­security maximum 1 The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1.ANSWER: B 23. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database. d. b. ANSWER: B 24. e. Refer to the exhibit. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running­configuration file. c.

enable cdp b. cdp enable c.FFFF. cdp run . D 25. will be forwarded out fa0/1. Hosts B and C may forward frames out fa0/1 but frames arriving from other switches will not be forwarded out fa0/1. ANSWER: B. This frame will be discarded when it is received by 2950Switch.aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/1. All frames arriving on 2950Switch with a destination of 0000. Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly connected Cisco devices? a. f. e.a.00aa. the first learned MAC address of 2950Switch. d. b. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1. c. The MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF. Only frames from source 0000.bbbb.00bb.FFFF.

d. F 28. VLANs allow access to network services based on department. VLANs establish broadcast domains in switched networks. What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three. It attempts to boot from a TFTP server. moving. ANSWER: A 27. VLANs can greatly simplify adding. not physical location. The output that is shown is generated at a switch.) . It loads the first image file in flash memory. It checks the configuration register. c. VLANs provide a method of conserving IP addresses in large networks. A Cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. Refer to the exhibit. run cdp ANSWER: C 26.d. What function does the router perform next? a. It inspects the configuration file in NVRAM for boot instructions. Which three statements are true? (Choose three. or changing hosts on the network. b. b. e. VLANs utilize packet filtering to enhance network security. f. c. d. ANSWER: A. E. It is now ready to find and load an IOS image. VLANs provide a low­latency internetworking alternative to routed networks.) a.

b. learning. f. or forwarding.) a. d. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree. All ports will be in a state of discarding. C. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media. ANSWER: A. E 29.a. e. show interface trunk . All designated ports are in a forwarding state. Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given Cisco switch interface? (Choose two. c. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.

learning d. E 30. D 31. show interface vlan e. listening c.b. discarding b. disabled ANSWER: A. show ip interface brief d. forwarding e. show interface switchport ANSWER: A. Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task? . show interface interface c.) a. Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two. A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management workstation connected to SwitchA . Refer to the exhibit.

168.252 SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1 SwitchB(config­if)# ip address SwitchB(config­if)# no shutdown d. SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1 SwitchB(config­if)# ip address SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1 SwitchB(config­if)# ip address 192.255.252 255.252 255.168.0 SwitchB(config­if)# no shutdown c.255.8.a.255.0 SwitchB(config­if)# ip default­gateway 192. SwitchB(config)# ip default­network SwitchB(config)# ip default­gateway 192. SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1 SwitchB(config­if)# ip address 192.168.254 255.8.252 255.0 SwitchB(config­if)# no shutdown .255.255.0 SwitchB(config­if)# no shutdown b.255.

e. SwitchB(config)# ip route

SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1

SwitchB(config­if)# ip address

SwitchB(config­if)# no shutdown


32. Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.)

a. They increase the size of collision domains.

b. They allow logical grouping of users by function.

c. They can enhance network security.

d. They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision

e. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broad­
cast domains.

f. They simplify switch administration.


33. What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three.)

a. A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic
from other network traffic.

b. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use
the same network infrastructure.

c. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use
the same network infrastructure.

d. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus
reducing their size.

e. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains, thus
increasing their size.

f. VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups, because the VLANs all
belong to the same broadcast domain.

g. Port­based VLANs increase switch­port use efficiency, thanks to 802.1Q trunks.


34. Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose

a. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.

b. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.

c. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer
2 and Layer 3 address information.

d. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.

e. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched seg­
ment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other
switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.

f. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the ad­


35. Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation pro­
cess? (Choose two.)

a. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow

control information.

b. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the

c. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and des­
tination host addresses and protocol­related control information.

d. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control infor­
mation to a segment.

e. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical


36. Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)

a. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.

b. A modem terminates a digital local loop.

c. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.

d. A modem terminates an analog local loop.

e. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.

f. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.


37. Which interface counter can you use to diagnose a duplex mismatch problem?

a. no carrier

b. late collisions

c. giants

It becomes the root bridge for the configured VLAN. CRC errors e. PQ b. d. b. c. When an interface is configured with PortFast BPDU guard. It continues operating normally. ANSWER: D 40.) . CBWFQ c. Which feature can you implement to reserve bandwidth for VoIP calls across the call path? a. deferred f. how does the interface respond when it receives a BPDU? a. It goes into an errdisable state. runts ANSWER: B 38. round robin d. RSVP ANSWER: D 39.d. What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three. It goes into a down/down state.

a. It uses separate SYN and ACK messages to establish a connection. f. router#show ip interface brief ANSWER: B 42. d. c. It uses a minimum amount of network bandwidth. Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? (Choose two. The connection is established before data is transmitted. It ensures that all data is transmitted and received by the remote device. d. It is bandwidth­intensive. It is the most efficient way to deliver data to multiple receivers. c. It burdens the source host without affecting remote hosts.) a. . Which command can you enter to determine whether serial interface 0/2/0 has been configured using HDLC encapsulation? a. It uses a single SYN­ACK message to establish a connection. F 41. e. It requires applications to determine when data packets must be retransmitted. It supports significantly higher transmission speeds than UDP. router#show platform b. C. e. ANSWER: B. router#show interfaces Serial 0/2/0 c. router#show ip interface s0/2/0 d. b. It simultaneously delivers multiple streams of data. b.

c. They are less costly than public IP addresses. show ip bgp summary b. e. d.) a. the browser cache ANSWER: A 45. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.ANSWER: B. E 43. They are routed the same as public IP addresses. What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections. show ip community­list . b. the ISP local cache d. What is the authoritative source for an address lookup? a. the operating system cache c. C 44. a recursive DNS search b. Which command can you enter to verify that a BGP connection to a remote device is established? a. ANSWER: B.

The tunnel interface IP address is misconfigured. ANSWER: B. show ip bgp paths d. f. During which phase of PPPoE is PPP authentication performed? a. b. Phase 2 c. The tunnel interface is down. C. d. A valid route to the destination address is missing from the routing table. An ACL is blocking the outbound traffic.c. show ip route ANSWER: A 46. The tunnel address is routed through the tunnel itself. the Active Discovery phase d. D . e. c. the PPP Session phase b. the Authentication phase e.) a. Which three circumstances can cause a GRE tunnel to be in an up/down state? (Choose three. Phase 1 ANSWER: A 47. The ISP is blocking the traffic.

Only northbound APIs allow program control of the network. They are best suited to smaller wireless networks. Which two statements about northbound and southbound APIs are true? (Choose two. ANSWER: A. C 49. c.) a. ANSWER: B. Only southbound APIs allow program control of the network. Which two statements about using leased lines for your WAN infrastructure are true? (Choose two.) a. Leased lines with sufficient bandwidth can avoid latency between endpoints. b. e. 48. Leased lines require little installation and maintenance expertise. f. d. They can manage mobility policies at a systemwide level. They must be configured through a GUI over HTTP or HTTPS. b. Leased lines support up to T1 link speeds. Which two statements about wireless LAN controllers are true? (Choose two. E 50. b. c. d. Leased lines provide highly flexible bandwidth scaling. They can simplify the management and deployment of wireless LANs. . e. Multiple leased lines can share a router interface. Leased lines provide inexpensive WAN access.) a. They rely on external firewalls for WLAN security.

route(config­router)#default­information originate ANSWER: A 52. C 51. It ensures that user activity is fully anonymous.255. e. f.c. Both northbound and southbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer.0 0. Device­administration packets are encrypted in their entirety.0 255.255. d.0. Both northbound and southbound APIs allow program control of the network. Only northbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer. d.0 GigabitEthernet0/1 b. router(config­router)#default­information originate always c. It supports EAP authentication for connecting to wireless networks. . Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an inter­ face? a.255 GigabitEthernet0/1 d. It provides encrypted multiprotocol support. Only southbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer. router(config)#ip route 0. ANSWER: B. c. b.0.0.0. router(config)#ip route 0. Which statement about RADIUS security is true? a.0.0.

ipv6 route 2001:DB8::/32 serial 2/0 201 . 0­1 ANSWER: A 0 emergencies System is unusable 1 alerts Immediate action is needed 2 critical Critical conditions exist 3 errors Error conditions exist 4 warnings Warning conditions exist 5 notification Normal. 0­5 c.ANSWER: A 53. 0­2 d. If you are configuring syslog messages specifying `logging trap warning'. conditions exist 6 informational Informational messages 7 debugging Debugging messages 54. 0­4 b. What is the correct command for floating static ipv6 route? a. 0­6 e. which log messages will the router send? a. but significant.

ieee802. 56. When this collision condition is detected. CSMA/CD Stops transmitting when congestion occurs e. the station stops transmitting that frame. 10BaseT half duplex d. What is true about Ethernet? (Choose Two. 802.b. What IP SLA ICMP Echo measures? a. 802. N/A d.) a. CSMA/CA Stops transmitting when congestion occurs ANSWER: B. N/A ANSWER: A 55.3 Protocol c. Hop­by­hop "something" . ipv6 route 2001:DB8::/32 serial 2/0 1 c. Congestion c. Packet loss b. D http://www.2 Protocol b.org/3/ CSMA/CD ­ It uses a carrier sensing scheme in which a transmitting station detects collisions by sensing transmissions from other stations while transmitting a frame.

Redistributed routes ANSWER: A. ­ANOTHER OPTION­ ANSWER: A There is no RRT (Round­trip time) in the choices @Mik said. Enable RIP on the router . ­ANOTHER OPTION­ e.com/ipv6­static­routes­for­cisco­routers/ http://www. Advertised routes e. Virtual links f. Which two options are requirements for configuring RIPv2 for IPv4? (Choose TWO) a. 57. Fully specified routes d. Directly connected routes c.orbit­computer­solutions.d. What are types of IPv6 static routes? (Choose Three. Recursive routes b.) a. C http://ipcisco.com/ipv6­static­and­default­route­how­to­configure­ipv6­st atic­and­default­ route/ 58. B.

com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/ip/configuration/guide/fipr_c/1cfrip. E http://www. Errdisabled ANSWER: C 60. Enable auto­summary d. Allowing unicast updates for RIP ANSWER: A. Enabled c.cisco. Disabled d.b. Enable authentication e. Layer 2 protocol . What is the status of port­channel if LACP is misconfigured? a.) a. What is true about DTP? (Choose Three. Connect RIP to a WAN interface c.html#wp10 00889 ?Enabling RIP (Required) Allowing Unicast Updates for RIP (Required)? RIP Version 1 and Version 2 have the same basic requirements 59. Forwarding b.

COS Field e.wikipedia. What 8­bit field exists in IP packet for QoS? a. CSMA/CA .com/books/2/686/1/html/2/images/1587051990/graphics/13fig01.org/wiki/Dynamic_Trunking_Protocol 61. enabled by default e. Proprietary protocol d. disabled by default ANSWER: A. Layer 3 protocol c. C.b. TOS Field b. D https://en. What feature uses a random time to re­send a frame? a. DSCP c.gif 62. IP Precedence d. RED ANSWER: A http://flylib.

Access. NTP c. Access Ports c. 0­2 d. Otherwise it will become an access port. 64. CSMA/CD ANSWER: D 63. Which mode is compatible with Trunk. 0­5 c. Dynamic Auto d. Dynamic Desirable ANSWER: C The 'dynamic auto' will configure the port to accept incoming negotiation and will accept becoming either a trunk or an access port. and desirable ports? a. Dynamic Auto allows the port to negotiate DTP (Dynamic Trunking Protocol) if the other side is set to trunk or desirable.b. 0­4 b. Trunk Ports b. ARP d. 0­6 . which log messages will the router send? a. If you configure syslog messages without specifying the logging trap level.

by severity level.e. to be sent to the syslog server. The default is informational (6) and lower ( 0 ­ 6). Which command can you execute to set the user inactivity timer to 10 seconds? a. SW1(config­line)#absolute­timeout 0 10 d. The possible values for level are as follows: Emergency: 0 Alert: 1 Critical: 2 Error: 3 Warning: 4 Notice: 5 Informational: 6 Debug: 7 65. 0­1 ANSWER: D Router(config)# logging trap level ­ Specifies the kind of messages. SW1(config­line)#exec­timeout 0 10 b. SW1(config­line)#exec­timeout 10 c. SW1(config­line)#absolute­timeout 10 ANSWER: A .

4 . TFTP d. If there are 3 hosts connected in one port of a switch and two other hosts con­ nected in another port. The two hosts are in the same broadcast domain. DHCP ANSWER: A 67. IP routing must be enabled to allow the two hosts to communicate. GLBP c. VRRP b. b. Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration. The switch must be configured with a VLAN to allow the two hosts to communicate. c. ANSWER: B 68. 2 c. how may collision domains are present on the switch? a. 5 b. Which standards­based First Hop Redundancy Protocol is a Cisco supported alter­ native to Hot Standby Router Protocol? a. Which state­ ment about the configuration is true? a. 66. d. 3 d. Port security prevents the hosts from connecting to the switch.

168. c.255. 192. You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on the same network while providing the maximum number of subnets. a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site d. 192.ANSWER: B 69.252 b.255.255.255.) a.16 255. an interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host.255.255.240 e. d.8 255.252. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has been provided by an ISP e. an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network. 192.252. b.0 255.252.252. D 70. Which net­ work address and subnet mask meet this requirement? a.255.168.16 255.248 c. What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.252 ANSWER: B .255.8 255. C.255. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address provid­ ed by a local administrator ANSWER: A.168.168. 192. 192.

They are sourced from the configured IPv6 interface address. MSTP b. e. Their destination is always the link­local address of the neighboring node. duplex ANSWER: B 72. 71. c. Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement messages are true? (Choose two. What parameter can be different on ports within an EtherChannel? a. PVST+ d. They use ICMPv6 type 134. speed b. RSTP c. B 73. The advertised prefix length must be 64 bits. b. trunk encapsulation d. ANSWER: A. Mono Spanning Tree .) a. Which spanning­tree protocol rides on top of another spanning­tree protocol? a. d. DTP negotiation settings c. The advertised prefix length must be 48 bits.

up to the maximum defined. The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels. the switch can learn new addresses.ANSWER: A 74. fragment­free switching b. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running configuration. Which switching method duplicates the first six bytes of a frame before making a switching decision? a. A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. When dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface. Which two statements are true? (Choose two. b. c. D 75. ASIC switching ANSWER: C 76. The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports.) a. The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses in the voice VLAN ANSWER: C. cut­through switching d. store­and­forward switching c. d. Which logging command can enable administrators to correlate syslog messages with millisecond precision? . e.

RIP is a link­state protocol. Updates are sent to a broadcast address. logging host 10. b. Routes are updated when a change in topology occurs. no logging monitor d. logging buffered 4 c. c.0. show interface switchport . F 78. Which three statements about link­state routing are true? (Choose three. d. ANSWER: A. Updates are sent to a multicast address by default. show vlan c.2. It uses split horizon.a. no logging console b. Which command can you enter to determine whether a switch is operating in trunking mode? a.) a. e. show interfaces d. show ip interface brief b. f. service timestamps log datetime mscec e. OSPF is a link­state protocol. D.21 ANSWER: D 77.

E 81. Switch#show interface vlan 20 ANSWER: B 80. fd15:0db8::7:3:4F:527B e. Which function of the IP SLAs ICMP jitter operation can you use to determine whether a VoIP issue is caused by excessive end­to­end time? a. Switch#show ip interface vlan 20 b. packet loss . fd15:0db8:0000:0000:700:3:400F:527B b.) a. In which two formats can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B be written? (Choose two. Switch#show vlan id 20 c. fd15::db8::700:3:400F:527B c. fd15:db8:0::700:3:4F:527B d. fd15:db8::700:3:400F:572B ANSWER: A. Switch#show ip interface brief d.ANSWER: D 79. Which command can you enter to view the ports that are assigned to VLAN 20? a.

Refer to the exhibit. As FastEthernet0/12 will be the last to come up. round­trip time latency ANSWER: D 82. jitter c.b. d. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch. b. A. it will be blocked by STP. . successive packet loss d. Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed? a. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change. c. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and ST.

b. The switch needs an appropriate default gateway assigned. . d.ANSWER: B 83. but pings to the other two hosts are successful. The switch interface connected to the router is down. host A is unavailable. However. The switch interfaces need the appropriate IP addresses assigned. c. Host and the switch need to be in the same subnet. The network administrator normally establishes a Telnet session with the switch from host A. What is the issue? a. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator's attempt to telnet to the switch from host fails.

The device at the other end of the connection is powered off. b. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link. The serial interface is disabled. c. Host needs to be assigned an IP address in VLAN 1. ANSWER: C 84. Port security has disabled the interface. The interface is fully functioning. Which two correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control infor­ mation to a segment. c. There is a duplex mismatch. e. d. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information. d. e.e. .) a. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and des­ tination host addresses and protocol­related control information. ANSWER: E 85. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment. The interface is configured with the shutdown command. f. b. Which condition does the err­disabled status indicate on an Ethernet interface? a.

Network A ­ D .16.128/25 e. Link A ­ 172. Network A ­ 172. Network A ­ 172. Link A ­ 172.40/30 f.ANSWER: C.48/26 d. Which network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two.3.3. Link A ­ 172.16. Refer to the exhibit All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet­zero command.0/30 b.192/26 ANSWER: A.16.112/30 c. E a.

C182 d. ANSWER: B 89. It is configured in global configuration mode. It runs over the transport layer. Which type of device can be replaced by the use of subinterfaces for VLAN routing a. Layer 3 switch d. Layer 2 switch c. 87. Which statement about LLDP is true? a.3DC6 ANSWER: C . The LLDP update frequency is a fixed value.9A1A.90C5 b.F726.6BE3 c. switch 0040.F90B. d. c. Layer 3 router ANSWER: C 88.00. Layer 2 bridge b. If the primary root bridge experiences a power loss. switch 0004. switch 00E0. b. which switch takes over? a. switch 00E0. It is a Cisco proprietary protocol.

FE80::/8 is used for link­local unicast. 2001::1/127 is used for loopback addresses. D. c. What command will display the required information? a. The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. Which command can you enter to display duplicate IP addresses that the DHCP server assigns? . e.) a. FC00::/7 is used in private networks. Router# show ip eigrp adjacency d. A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. ANSWER: B. Which three statements about IPv6 prefixes are true? (Choose three. Router# show ip eigrp neighbors b. b. Router# show ip eigrp interfaces c. FF00::/8 is used for IPv6 multicast. 90. f. F 92. FEC0::/10 is used for IPv6 broadcast. d. FE80::/10 is used for link­local unicast. Router# show ip eigrp topology ANSWER: A 91.

Switch B ­ Fa0/0 d.2. show ip dhcp binding 10.2.0. Switch C ­ Fa0/0 f.0. Which three ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same bandwidth? (Choose three. Switch B ­ Fa0/1 e.12 b. Switch A ­ Fa0/1 c. show ip dhcp server statistics d.a. show ip dhcp database 10.12 c.) a. Switch A ­ Fa0/0 b.0. show ip dhcp conflict 10.12 ANSWER: A 93.2. Switch C ­ Fa0/1 .

Given the information in the graphic and assuming that the router and Switch2 are configured properly.24. C. Refer to the exhibit The network administrator cannot connect to Switch 1 over a Telnet session. Switch1(config)# ip default­gateway 192. although the hosts attached to Switch1 can ping the interface Fa0/0 of the router. Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1 .1 b. which of the following com­ mands should be issued on Switch1 to correct this problem? a.168. D 94.ANSWER: B.

Switch1(config­if)# switchport mode trunk

c. Switch1(config)# line con0

Switch1(config­line)# password cisco

Switch1(config­line)# login

d. Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1

Switch1(config­if)# ip address

e. Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1

Switch1(config­if)# duplex full

Switch1(confiq­if)# speed 100


95. Refer to the exhibit.

Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to
run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct
RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)

a. SwitchD. Gi0/2, root

b. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated

c. SwitchB, Gi0/l, designated

d. SwitchA, Fa0/l, root

e. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root

f. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root


96. Which feature builds a FIB and an adjacency table to expedite packet forwarding?

a. cut through

b. fast switching

c. process switching

d. Cisco Express Forwarding


97. Which command can you enter to verify that a 128­bit address is live and respond­

a. traceroute

b. telnet

c. ping

d. show ipv6


98. What are two reasons that duplex mismatches can be difficult to diagnose?
(Choose two.)

a. The interface displays a connected (up/up) state even when the duplex settings are mis­

b. 1­Gbps interfaces are full­duplex by default.

c. Full­duplex interfaces use CSMA/CD logic, so mismatches may be disguised by collisions.

d. The symptoms of a duplex mismatch may be intermittent.

e. Autonegotiation is disabled.


16. 99.0/25 c.1. Which protocol advertises a virtual IP address to facilitate transparent failover of a Cisco routing device? a. The local username password is encrypted in the configuration. What is the correct routing match to reach 172.16. 172. DHCP c. The local username password is in clear text in the configuration. b.16. the default route .5/32? a. ESRP ANSWER: A 101. Which condition indicates that service password­encryption is enabled? a.1.0/24 d. d.1. The enable secret is in clear text in the configuration. FHRP b. RSMLT d. 172. The enable secret is encrypted in the configuration.16.0/26 b. ANSWER: C 100. c. 172.1.

determine whether additional hardware has been added b. application ANSWER: E 103. presentation d. network c.ANSWER: A 102. VRRP c. HSRP b. set the configuration register ANSWER: A 104. transport b. locate an IOS image for booting c. GLBP d. Which protocol is the Cisco proprietary implementation of FHRP? a. Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availabil­ ity of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication? a. What is the purpose of the POST operation on a router? a. CARP . enable a TFTP server d. session e.

C. DHCP c. utilizes event­triggered updates e. AAA authentication ANSWER: A 107. .) a. Which part of the PPPoE server configuration contains the information used to as­ sign an IP address to a PPPoE client? a. calculates shortest path d.) a. exchanges routing tables with neighbors c. Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three. Which three characteristics are representative of a link­state routing protocol? (Choose three.ANSWER: A 105. D 106. utilizes frequent periodic updates ANSWER: A. dialer interface d. provides common view of entire topology b. virtual­template interface b. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.

ANSWER: B. discarding. c. d. What are two benefits of using NAT? (Choose two. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point­to­point links than STP does. D 108. SW1#show port­secure interface FastEthernet 0/12 b. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.b. NAT accelerates the routing process because no modifications are made on the packets. RSTP also uses the STP proposal­agreement sequence. NAT facilitates end­to­end communication when IPsec is enabled. NAT protects network security because private networks are not advertised. or forwarding. d. RSTP uses the same timer­based process as STP on point­to­point links ANSWER: A. SW1#show port­security interface FastEthernet 0/12 . e. NAT eliminates the need to re­address all hosts that require external access.) a. NAT conserves addresses through host MAC­level multiplexing. Dynamic NAT facilitates connections from the outside of the network. f. c. B. Which two commands correctly verify whether port security has been configured on port FastEthernet 0/12 on a switch? (Choose two. f. b.) a. e. RSTP port states are blocking. F 109. SW1#show switchport port­secure interface FastEthernet 0/12 c. learning. SW1#show running­config d.

b. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchC's fa0/1 port. SW1#show switchport port­security interface FastEthernet 0/12 ANSWER: C. c. what should the network ad­ ministrator's next action be? a. Given this output for SwitchC.e. Refer to the exhibit. . Check the duplex mode for SwitchC's fa0/1 port. D 110. Check the duplex mode for SwitchA's fa0/2 port.

If an address conflict is detected. CHAP has no protection from playback attacks. CHAP authentication passwords are sent in plaintext. the address is removed from the pool and an adminis­ trator must resolve the conflict. e. CHAP authentication periodically occurs after link establishment. . Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP? a. ANSWER: D 112. CHAP authentication is performed only upon link establishment. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchA's fa0/2 port ANSWER: C 111. b. b. A DHCP server uses a gratuitous ARP to detect DHCP clients. CHAP uses a two­way handshake. If an address conflict is detected. c. If an address conflict is detected. d.d. f. d.) a. Which two statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP link are true? (Choose two. the address is removed from the pool for an amount of time configurable by the administrator. the address is removed from the pool and will not be reused until the server is rebooted. A DHCP client uses a ping to detect address conflicts. A DHCP client uses a gratuitous ARP to detect a DHCP server. CHAP uses a three­way handshake. c. f. e.

An IP address must be configured for the port. b.ANSWER: B. Based on the output shown.1Q­compliant trunk to another switch. Refer to the exhibit. C 113. c. The correct encapsulation type has not been configured. even though the proper cabling has been attached? a. what is the reason the trunk does not form. . The port is currently configured for access mode. Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802. VLANs have not been created yet. d.

b.e.) a. The administrator con­ figured the interface and tested it with successful pings from PC_A to RouterA. The no shutdown command has not been entered for the port. the port is to drop frames from this device. Refer to the exhibit. ANSWER: C 114. Port security needs to be globally enabled. Port security needs to be enabled on the interface. Which two of these changes are necessary for SwitchA to meet the requirements? (Choose two. . and then observes the output from these two show commands. A junior network administrator was given the task of configur­ ing port security on SwitchA to allow only PC_A to access the switched network through port fa0/1. If any other device is detected.

e. ANSWER: B. D 115. c. Port security needs to be configured to shut down the interface in the event of a viola­ tion. It requires more resources than other routing methods.0 network 10. The port security configuration needs to be saved to NVRAM before it can become ac­ tive.15. router eigrp 100 network 172. f. It is best used for large­scale deployments. Port security needs to be configured to allow only one learned MAC address. It is best used for small­scale deployments.) a.4. Port security interface counters need to be cleared before using the show command. ANSWER: A.3. e. Routing is disrupted when links fail.4. Which three statements about static routing are true? (Choose three.4. d. d. B. It uses consistent route determination. C 116. f.0 network 192. b.168.c. Routers can use update messages to reroute when links fail.0 auto­summary .

What are the address that will show at the show ip route if we configure the above statements?
(Choose Three.)








117. Which feature facilitate the tagging of a specific VLAN?

a. Routing

b. Hairpinning

c. Encapsulation

d. Switching


118. What does split horizon prevent?

a. routing loops, link state

b. routing loops, distance vector

c. switching loops, STP

d. switching loops, VTP


119. Which value to use in HSRP protocol election process ?

a. interface

b. virtual IP address

c. priority

d. router ID


120. Which of the following is needed to be enable back the role of active in HSRP?

a. prempt

b. priority

c. other options

d. other options


121. Which command is used to show the interface status of a router?

a. show interface status

b. show ip interface brief

c. show ip route

d. show interface


122. Which of the following privilege level is the most secured?

a. Level 0

b. Level 1

c. Level 15

d. Level 16


123. Which IPV6 feature is supported in IPV4 but is not commonly used?

a. unicast

b. multicast

c. anycast

d. broadcast


124. Which two statements are true about IPv6 Unique Local Addresses? (Choose Two.)

a. It is the counterpart of IPv4 private addresses

b. It uses FC00::/7 as prefix

it discovers the routers. wrong ANSWER: A. 99 b. switches and gateways. access router physically c. B 125. What is true about Cisco Discovery Protocol? a. 150 c. . wrong d.c. What to do when the router password was forgotten? a. 2000 ANSWER: A 126. Which range represents the standard access list? a. Type confreg 0x2142 at the rommon 1 ANSWER: D 127. 299 d. use ssl/vpn d. use default password cisco to reset b.

it is physical and data link layer protocol d. other d.b. telnet b. How do you maintain security in multiple websites? a. Which of the following encrypts the traffic on a leased line? a. dmvpn c. other ANSWER: A . vpn b. vtp d. vpn e. dmvpn ANSWER: D 129. it is proprietary protocol ANSWER: D 128. ssh c. it is network layer protocol c.

c. ANSWER: B 131. Switch­1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data origi­ nated. interface fa0/0 ip address x.x.x.x.x remote as x.255.x. d. b.255. What will Switch­1 do with this data? a.x.efa4. 130. Refer to the exhibit.x. Switch­1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data originated. Switch­1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address. Switch­1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00b0.x . Switch­1 will forward the data to its default gateway.d056.224 router bgp XXX neighbor x.33 255.

SA b.x.x. distance­vector c.x.224 c.x.33 mask 255.1Q? a.255. What field is consist of 6 bytes in the field identification frame in IEEE 802. x.224 b. x.255. other ANSWER: A . other ANSWER: A 133.255.x. link­state b.x. x.0.x.x.32 255.0. DA c. x.255.32 mask 0.32 mask 255. a. path­vector d.255. What routing protocol use first­hand information? a.You need to advertise the network of Int fa0/0.31= d.255.224 ANSWER: A 132. FCS d.

extended c. other ANSWER: A 136. other d. other ANSWER: B 135. prempt b. It use IPv4 IPv6 c. reflexive b. What is new in HSRPv2? a. A network engineer wants to allow a temporary entry for a remote user with a specific username and password so that the user can access the entire network over the internet. What's are true about MPLS? a. other d. 134. dynamic . It use a label to separete traffic from several costumer b. a greater number in hsrp group field c. standard d. Which ACL can be used? a.

Which command is necessary to permit SSH or Telnet access to a cisco switch that is otherwise configured for these vty line protocols? a.ANSWER: D 137. no logging console . transport output all c. Which two Cisco IOS commands. transport preferred all d. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end­user equip­ ment is well known and widely reported e. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals c. can enable debug output to a remote location? (Choose two. transport input all ANSWER: D 138. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates ANSWER: B 139. What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan? a.) a. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security b. transport type all b. used in troubleshooting. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likeli­ hood of passwords being forgotten d.

Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system? a. terminal monitor d. Cisco OpenDaylight b.b. C 140. ip dhcp pool DHCP_pool b. Cisco ACI c. snmp­server enable traps syslog ANSWER: B. Cisco APIC d.txt e. show logging | redirect flashioutput. Cisco IWAN ANSWER: C 141. logging host ip­address c. ip dhcp exclude ­add c. What command can you enter in config mode to create DHCP pool? a. service dhcp ANSWER: A . ip dhcp conflict logging d.

142. DHCP reservation c.html 143. D 144. ssh d.) a. What are the three major components of cisco network virtualization? (Choose Three. telnet ANSWER: A http://www. static reservation b. What is the two benefits of DHCP snooping? (Choose two. Which utility can you use to determine whether a switch can send echo requests and replies? a. virtual network services . prevent untrusted host and servers to connect ANSWER: C. path isolation c. prevent DHCP rouge server d.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ios­nx­os­software/ios­software­releases­121­mainli ne/12778­ping­ traceroute. traceroute c.) a. network access control b. ping b.cisco.

policy enforcement ANSWER: A. B. unequal cost load balancing b. PRP d.d. Two features of the extended ping command? (Choose two. Standard industrialized protocol of etherchannel? a. PAGP c. C 145. path selection c. LACP b. Which feature is config by setting a variance that is at least 2 times the metric? a. It can send a specific number of packet b. REP ANSWER: A 147. equal cost load balancing d.) a. It can send packet from specified interface of IP address . path count ANSWER: A 146.

It can ping multiple host at the same time ANSWER: A. It can resolve the destination host name d. Syslog logging is disabled by default b. ntp peer IP c. ntp master 3 b. D 150. How to enable vlans automatically across multiple switches? . B 148. ntp server IP d.c. Messages are stored in the internal memory of device c. other f. Messages are stored external to the device e. other ANSWER: A. Two statements about syslog loging? (CHOOSE TWO) a. Messages can be erased when device reboots d. What command is used to configure a switch as authoritative NTP server? a. ntp source IP ANSWER: A 149.

Simply configuration ANSWER: C. enable secret d. What is the binary pattern of unique ipv6 unique local address? . Which password types are encrypted? a. Configure each VLAN d. enable password ANSWER: C 152. What is the benefit of point­to­point leased line? (Choose two. Full­mesh capability c.) a. Telnet c. SSH b.a. Configure VLAN b. D 153. Configure VTP ANSWER: D 151. Confiture NTP c. Low cost b. Flexibillity of design d.

What is the cause of the Syslog output messages? a. 11111100 c. An ACL have must at least one permit action. b. Interface Fa0/1 has become error disabled. The EIGRP neighbor connected to Fa0/1 is participating in a different EIGRP process. causing the EIGRP adjacency to go down. d. causing the EIGRP adjacency to go down. ANSWER: A 155. causing the adjacency to go down. 00000000 b. Which statemnet about ACLs is true? a. The EIGRP neighbor on Fa0/1 went down due to a failed link. ACLs go bottom­up through the entries looking for a match c. 11111101 ANSWER: B 154. else it just blocks all traffic.a. A shut command was executed on interface Fa0/1. d. ANSWER: C . b. An ACL has a an implicit permit at the end of ACL. c. ACLs will check the packet against all entries looking for a match. 11111111 d.

Gather the facts d. What are contained in layer 2 ethernet frame? (Choose Three. D 157. Type/length d.html 158. Under normal operations. Describe the best way to troubleshoot and isolate a network problem? a. on the management vlan . Create an action plan b. on the default vlan b. Change on variable at a time ANSWER: A http://www. TTL c. C. Frame check sequence e. cisco recommends that you configure switch ports on which vlan? a. Implement an action plan c. others ANSWER: A.) a.cisco. 156. version f.com/en/US/docs/internetworking/troubleshooting/guide/tr1901. Preamble b.

on any vlan except the default vlan ANSWER: A http://www. Which DTP switchport mode allow the port to create a trunk port if the the port is in trunk. dynamic auto and dynamic desirable mode? a. the ToS byte . the QoS byte b. on the native vlan d. Access d. Trunk ANSWER: A http://bradhedlund.com/2007/11/27/switchport­configurations­explained/ 160. Dynamic Auto b.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/catalyst­6500­series­switches/24330­185. the CoS byte c.cisco. Dynamic Desirable c.c.h tml 159. In which byte of an IP packet can traffic be marked ? a.

VTP c. ip route 0. the DSCP byte ANSWER: C http://www. DTP d.0.168.0. ip route 192.168. ip route 0. Which command can you enter to route all traffic that is destined to 192.255. STP e.0.0.0 gi0/1 b.0.com/c/en/us/support/docs/quality­of­service­qos/qos­packet­marking/10103­ds cpvalues.0.255.0 gi0/1 d.0 gi0/1 c.d. D .cisco.255.0/20 to a specific interface? a. CDP b.0.0 255. PAGP ANSWER: A. Which two protocols can detect native vlan mismatch errors? (Choose two.240. ip route 192.html 161.0 gi0/1 ANSWER: A 162.0 0.0.) a.

163. set both side on auto­negotation. set both sides on half­duplex c. set both side of connection to full­duplex e.com/network­enemy­1­duplex­mismatch/ 164. set one side full­duplex and other side half­duplex ANSWER: A. set one side auto and other side on full­duplex f.h tml . they are managed by IANA c.pathsolutions. they can be implemented without requiring admin to coordinate with IANA b. they are routable over internet ANSWER: A. D http://www. increase the flexibility of network design d.) a.) a. Which three options are switchport config that can always avoid duplex mismatch error between the switches? (Choose Three. What are two benefits of Private IPv4 Addresses? (Choose two.chron. b. D http://smallbusiness.com/advantages­disadvantages­using­private­ip­address­space­46424. B. provide network isloation from the internet e. set one side auto and other side half­duplex d.

165. 128 ANSWER: C http://networkengineering. EIGRP b. 64 d. OSPF c. BGP ANSWER: A . 32 b. 48 c. (An image on exhibit) An interface which we have to determine from the routing the route learned by which routing protocol? a. How many bits represent network id in a IPv6 address? a.stackexchange. RIP d.com/questions/30836/calculate­networking­bits­for­ipv 6 64 bits for Nwtwork ID and 64 bits for Interface ID 64+64=128 166.

one physical site act as Hub (Example. In Huband­spoke Wide Area Network (WAN) topology. expiration of the hold timer ANSWER: C 169. Which function allows EIGRP peers to receive notice of implementing topology changes? a. hub and spoke c. Main Office). 168. star b. Spoke sites are connected to each other via Hub site. goodbye messages d. while other physical sites act as spokes. the network communication between two spokes always travels through the hub. advertised changes c. successors b. If you configure syslog messages without specifying the logging trap level. 167. point­to­point d. which log messages will the router send? . Which WAN topology is most appropriate for a centrally located server farm with several satellite branches? a. full mesh ANSWER: B In a Hub­and­spoke Site­to­Site Wide Area Network (WAN) network topology.

What layer of the OSI Model is included in TCP/IP Model's INTERNET layer? a. all levels except debugging ANSWER: E 170. F http://tacacs. Which three options are benefits of using TACACS+ on a device? (Choose three) a.pdf http://www. device­administration packets are encrypted in their entirely.net/docs/TACACS_Advantages. It ensures that user activity is untraceable.cisco. error conditions only e. e. f. b. It provides a secure accounting facility on the device. It allows the user to remotely access devices from other vendors. c. d. informational messages only b.html 171. Application .com/c/en/us/support/docs/security­vpn/remote­authentication­dial­user­servic eradius/13838­ 10. warning and error conditions only c. ANSWER: C. normal but significant conditions only d.a. E. It allows the users to be authenticated against a remote server. It supports access­level authorization for commands.

E 173. Presentation e. It is a Layer 2 messaging protocol which maintains VLAN configurations across networks. IPv6 stateful autoconfiguration . NOT SURE ABOUT THE QUESTION EITHER. DHCP c. It is a trunking protocol capable of carrying untagged frames.b. It is used exclusively for tagging VLAN frames and does not address network reconver­ gence following switched network topology changes. Network ANSWER: E NOT SURE ABOUT THE CHOICES.3 frame header. d.1Q protocol? (Choose two. ANSWER: B. 172. NHRP d. e. IPv6 stateless autoconfiguration b. b. It modifies the 802. Data Link d.) a. Which two of these are characteristics of the 802. and thus requires that the FCS be recomputed. Which two features can dynamically assign IPv6 addresses? (Choose two. It includes an 8­bit field which specifies the priority of a frame. c.) a. Session c. ssh ­l admin 10. . Which 802. How to verify strong and secured SSH connection? a.e. High­Security mode c.1. Closed mode ANSWER: A 175. ISATAP tunneling ANSWER: A. B 174. Monitor mode b. Low­impact mode d.1 c.1 ANSWER: B Sorry for the question but they said it was something like that.1.1x mode allows these actions? a.1. ssh ­v 1 ­l admin 10. ssh ­v 2 ­l admin 10.1.1 d. ssh ­v 2 admin 10.1 b. A security administrator wants to profile endpoints and gain visibility into at­ tempted authentications.

straight­through c. 176.10. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller c.168. 4 b. Which Cisco platform can verify ACLs ? a.240? a. How many usable host are there per subnet if you have the address of 192.255. 16 d. Cisco IOS­XE . Cisco APIC­EM d. 8 c. cut­through b.255. rollover ANSWER: C 178. What interconnection cable can you use when you use a MDI connection? a. 14 ANSWER: D 177. Cisco Prime Infrastructure b.0 with a subnet mask of 255. crossover d.

in the multicast interface c. a security administrator must be able to correlate system security alert logs directly with the employee who triggers the alert. When you deploy multilink PPP on your network. If you want multiple hosts on a network. Group­based privileges for accounts d. where must you configure the group IP Address on each device ? a. In order to comply with new auditing standards. in the IP protocol b. Under the routing protocol d. Which of the following should the security administrator implement in order to meet this requirement? a. in the global configuration . Periodic user account access reviews ANSWER: D 180. Access control lists on file servers b. Under serial interface c.ANSWER: C 179. In the global config b. Under the multilink interface ANSWER: D 181. in the serial interface d. where do you configure the setting? a. Elimination of shared accounts c.

ANSWER: D 184. Which action can change the order of entries in a named access­list ? a. d. It eliminates the need for a GSS. ANSWER: B 183. c. It can redirect user requests to locations that are using fewer network resources. It is configured in enable mode. It enables the ISP to maintain DNS records automatically.ANSWER: A 182. Which option is the benefit of implementing an intelligent DNS for a cloud computing solu­ tion ? a. Which statement about the IP SLAs ICMP Echo operation is true? a. b. It is used to identify the best source interface from which to send traffic. opening the access­list in notepad c. It reduces the need for a backup data center. The frequency of the operations specified in milliseconds. adding an entry . d. b. It is used to determine the frequency of ICMP packets. c. removing an entry b.

it broadcasts the packet to each network on the router d. autonomous system number b. router ID d. version number c. How does a router handle an incoming packet whose destination network is missing from the routing table ? a. E 187. subnet mask e. Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BGP configuration? (Choose two. Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose THREE) .) a.d. IP address ANSWER: A. it routes the packet to the default ANSWER: B 186. resequencing ANSWER: D 185. it discards the packet c. it broadcast the packet to each interface on the router b.

b. The standby router sources hellos from its configured IP address and the burned­in MAC address (BIA). switches can be located anywhere regardless of there physical location. The HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the routers' interfaces on the same LAN... b. f.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/hot­standby­router­protocol­hsrp/13781­7. ..com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/hot­standby­router­protocol­hsrp/10583­62. HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface.h tml#q1 Load Sharing with HSRP http://www. c.cisco.cisco." http://www. B.has a 256 unique HSRP group ID limit.the allowed group ID range (0­255).html #topic5 "The active router sources hello packets from its configured IP address and the HSRP virtual MAC address. .com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/catalyst­6000­series­switches/29545­168.a.. The HSRP virtual IP address must be the same as one of the router's interface addresses on the LAN. MSFC2A (Supervisor Engine 32) can use any number of group IDs from that range.. The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval." ".html#c onf ".cisco. c. e. 188. respectively. Which two options describe benefits of aggregated chassis technology? (Choose TWO) a. these timers are set to 3 and 10 seconds. it reduces management overhead..com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/hot­standby­router­protocol­hsrp/10583­62. ANSWER: A. F http://www. The virtual IP address and virtual MAC address are active on the HSRP Master router." http://www.html #topic14 "By default.cisco. enabling an administrative form of load balancing.. it requires only 1 IP add per VLAN. HSRP supports only clear­text authentication d..

html% 23wp1021264&h=ATMT6hWMWKar6G3cbMd8vYoG64obKG4CIuxXlmCWtCLencP9vUG0hrC3C0azv 18aRsmIsdrKko8ew_O6UkUwYCVqgYvxTz3TFquXNKyrnrAa1arE1V4HBFjg4_E2gJSawoz2_g Ping the destination by name perform a DNS lookup on the destination 190.cisco. Which utility can you use to identify redundant or shadow rules ? a. C 189.com%2Fen%2FUS%2Fdocs% 2Finternetworking%2Ftroubleshooting%2Fguide%2Ftr1907. The ACL trace tool in Cisco APIC­EM.php?u=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.com/l. ANSWER: A. c. .facebook. How do you troubleshoot a DNS issue (Choose TWO) ? a. Determine whether the name servers have been configured. Ping a public website IP address. it supports HSRP VRRP GLBP. The ACL analysis tool in Cisco APIC­EM.d. e. b. E https://l. Determine whether the hardware address is correct. e. f. it requires only 3 IP add per VLAN. it support redundant configuration files. Ping the DNS Server. Determine whether a DHCP address has been assigned. ANSWER: B. d. b.

it can validate the reply data. d. it can use a specified TTL value. b. e. drops packets. buffers and queues packets. it can use a specificed TOS. What does traffic shaping do to reduce congestion in a network? a. c.c. Which two statements about extended traceroute command are true? CHOOSE TWO a. c. . d. queues without buffering packets. The Cisco APIC­EM automation scheduler. buffers without queuing packets. b. ANSWER: B Section: (none) Explanation 191. it can send packets from specified interface or ip address. d. it can repeated automatically to a specified interval. The Cisco IWAN application. ANSWER: A 192.

Minimum Time to Live [1]: The TTL value for the first probes. The default is 1.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/routing­information­protocol­rip/13730­ext­ pingtrace.cisco. c. b. The default is 30. Blocking. show ip dhcp binding d. but it can be set to a higher value to sup­ press the display of known hops. The trac­ eroute command terminates when the destination is reached or when this value is reached. Shutdown. Err­disabled. Which state does the interface enter when it recives a BPDU ? a. B http://www. The router normally picks the IP address of the outbound interface to use. show ip dhcp server statistic . Maximum Time to Live [30]: The largest TTL value that can be used. Which command can you enter to determine the addresses that have been assigned on a DHCP Server? a. d. ANSWER: D 194. Listening.html#ext_troute "This table lists the traceroute command field descriptions: Source address: The interface or IP address of the router to use as a source address for the probes. 193. show ip dhcp pool c.ANSWER: A. A BPDU guard is configured on an interface that has PortFast Enable. show ip dhcp database b.

com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/configfun/configuration/guide/ffun_c/ fcf014. d. . A is wrong because there is no encryption in SNMPv2.0 24d9. ANSWER: C http://www." So B & D must be wrong.aspx "Router#show ip dhcp binding Bindings from all pools not associated with VRF: IP address Client­ID/ Lease expiration Type 10. Its privacy algorithms use MD5 encryption by default.aubrett. because there is no "password" in SNMPv2.16.0ddd Jan 12 2013 03:42 AM Automatic" 195.2141.com/InformationTechnology/RoutingandSwitching/Cisco/CiscoRouters/ DHCPBindings.html#wp1010901 "Model___Level_________Authentication_____Encryption__What Happens v2c_____noAuthNoPriv___Community String__No________Uses a community string match for authentication. Which statement about SNMPv2 is true? a. It requires passwords at least eight characters en length.cisco.ANSWER: C http://www.173. b. Its authetication and privacy algorithms are enabled without default values. c. it requires passwords to be encrypyed.

ANSWER: C 198. unicast. late collisions on the interface. the spanning tree process shutting down. . c. b. c. b. c. neighbor configured directly. How are EIGRP for IPv6 configurations done? (Choose TWO) a. anycast. ANSWER: C 197. d. multicast. uses process number. broadcast.196. configured directly on interface. configured globally interface. have shutdown feature. Which symptom most commonly indicates that two connecting interfaces are configured with a duplex mismatch? a. b. Which type of IP addresses of IPv6 that also exists in IPv4 but barely used? a. d. d. e. an interface with up/down state. an interface with down/down state.

c. d. Which VTP mode can not make a change to a VLAN? a. d. packet­loss detection. Client. but you cannot create. Server. · A switch reset deletes the VLAN information. ANSWER: D . one way jitter measurement. · You must configure VTP client mode on a switch. 200. hop­by­hop response time. E 199. Which function does IP SLA ICMP ECHO operation perform to assist with troubleshooting? a. b. Off ANSWER: B VTP Client · VTP clients function the same way as VTP servers.ANSWER: C. c. or delete VLANs on a VTP client. Transparent. b. change. · A VTP client only stores the VLAN information for the entire domain while the switch is on. congestion detection.

asp?p=24090&seqNum=4 . other. Passive. On. path­vector. link state. d. ANSWER: A. b. Auto. c.http://www. d. b. What routing protocol use first­hand information from peers? a.omnisecu.php 202. Which modes are in PAgP? (Choose TWO) a.com/articles/article.html 201. B http://www. distance­vector.ciscopress. Desirable.com/cisco­certified­network­associate­ccna/etherchannel­pagp­and­lacp­m odes.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios­xml/ios/ipsla/configuration/15­mt/sla­15­mt­book/sla_ icmp_echo. e. ANSWER: A http://www.cisco. Active. c.

VTP c. At which layer of the OSI model does PPP perform? a.) a. Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to prevent loops in a layer 2 network? (Choose TWO) a. d. ANSWER: C. c.1d b. when they receive a special token. E 204. STP ANSWER: A. 802. E 205. under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two. when there is a carrier. 802. when they detect no other devices are sending. b. e. In an Ethernet network. Layer 2 b.1q d. when the server grants access. Layer 3 . when the medium is idle.203. SAP e.

scalability. ANSWER: A. . D. c. b.) a. Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? (Choose two. c. What are three reasons that an organization with multiple branch offices and roaming us­ ers might implement a Cisco VPN solution instead of point­to­point WAN links?(Choose three. d. It uses a minimum amount of network bandwidth. increased security. It is bandwidth­intensive. It burdens the source host without affecting remote hosts. d. Layer 4 d.) a. e. reduced cost.c. f. Layer 1 ANSWER: A 206. b. It simultaneously delivers multiple streams of data. reduced latency. Layer 5 e. e. E 207. broadband incompatibility. better throughput. It is the most efficient way to deliver data to multiple receivers.

d. Which port security mode can assist with troubleshooting by keeping count of violations? a. e.htm 209. Scan Timer. c. Hop Count. http://www. b. Flow Label.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/solutions_docs/ip_multicast/White_papers/mcst_ovr. access. c. shutdown. restrict. protect.ANSWER: B.com/articles/general/IPv6­Header. ANSWER: D Time To Live (TTL)/Hop Limit (8 bits) http://ipv6. . b. d. Which IPv6 header field is equivalent to the TTL? a.cisco. TTD. Hop Limit. E IP multicast is a bandwidth­conserving technology that reduces traffic by simultaneously delivering a single stream of information to potentially thousands of corporate recipients and homes. html 208.

e. no additional config is required c.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/ip/configuration/guide/fipr_c/1cfrip. d. standby 1 preempt e. c.ANSWER: C 210. Which configuration commands can you apply to an HSRP router so that its local interface becomes active should the WAN link fail? a. allowing unicast updates for RIP. Which two options are requirements for configuring RIPv2 for IPv4? (Choose TWO ) a. ANSWER: D. b. connecting RIP to a WAN Interface. standby 1 track ethernet d.html#wp10 00889 "Enabling RIP (Required) Allowing Unicast Updates for RIP (Required)" RIP Version 1 and Version 2 have the same basic requirements! 211. enabling RIP authentication. enabling RIP on the router. standby 1 priority 250 . active if all other routers in the group fail b. enabling auto route sumamrization.cisco. E http://www.

The trac­ eroute command terminates when the destination is reached or when this value is reached. The default is 1. but it can be set to a higher value to sup­ press the display of known hops. it can validate the reply data d. Which two statements about extended traceroute command is true? (Choose TWO) a. Maximum Time to Live [30]: The largest TTL value that can be used.cisco. it can use a specified TTL value b.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/enhanced­interior­gateway­routing­protocol­eigrp /113267­ eigrp­ipv6­00. TWO . B http://www. Which statement about EIGRP on IPv6 device is true ? CHOOSE a." 213.ANSWER: C http://www.html#ext_troute "This table lists the traceroute command field descriptions: Source address: The interface or IP address of the router to use as a source address for the probes. it can use a specificed TOS e. it can repeated automatically to a specified interval ANSWER: A. The default is 30.cisco. Minimum Time to Live [1]: The TTL value for the first probes. The router normally picks the IP address of the outbound interface to use. It is configured on the interface .com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/routing­information­protocol­rip/13730­ext­ pingtrace.html 212. it can send packets from specified interface or ip addreass c.

VPN connectivity . ANSWER: A. ip localization d. e.html 214. If is configured using a network statement . c.b. layer 3 network routing c. It is globally configured .com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/enhanced­interior­gateway­routing­protocol­eigrp /113267­ eigrp­ipv6­00. redundant connections e. It is vendor agnostic. show ip dhcp import d. E http://www. network­monitored power sources b.cisco. Which three technical services support cloud computing ? a. show ip dhcp pool c. show ip dhcp server statistics ANSWER: B 215. Which command can you enter to troubleshoot the failure of address assignment? a. show ip dhcp database b. d. It supports a shutdown feature.

Assign the access port to the VLAN ANSWER: A. the lowest prefix on the interface d. the prefix that the administrator configure for OSPFv3 use c.cisco. Configure full duplex d. E. all prefix on the interface b. Which two steps must you perform to enable router­on­stick on a switch? a. E 217. Configure the subinterface number exactly the same as the matching VLAN c. all address prefixes on an interface are included by default. Which address prefix does OSPFv3 use when multiple IPv6 address are configured on a sin­ gle interface? a.f.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios­xml/ios/iproute_ospf/configuration/15­sy/iro­15­sy­bo ok/ip6­routeospfv3. In OSPFv3. you can configure many address prefixes on an interface. Connect the router to a trunk port b.html#GUID­05F3F09C­FE3E­41D6­9845­111FB17AD030 "In IPv6. the highest prefix on the interface ANSWER: A http://www. extended SAN services ANSWER: D. You cannot select some address prefixes to be imported . Configure a static route to the VLAN destination network e. F 216.

either all address prefixes on an interface are imported.into OSPFv3. 32 d.1 255.1.255. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.1 c.255.1 255.168.128 ANSWER: E 219.168. . RSTP defines new port roles.255.1 255.255.255. Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct ? (Choose two) a.64 b.1 255.1.1. CIDR notation (255.255. 33 ANSWER: A 220.1.1. 31 c.256 e.168.1. b. 192. 192. or no address prefixes on an interface are imported.255. 192. 30 b.168. Which IP configuration does the CIDR notation 192.32 d.255.252 ) / notation ? a.168.1 255." 218.1/25 refer ? a.255. 192.

Lowest AD c. Longest bit Match (highest subnet Mask) b.1D STP. anycast c. When a device learns multiple routes to a specific network. E 221. global unicast b. d.com/articles/article. RSTP defines no new port states.ciscopress. e. ANSWER: B. Lowest metric d.asp?p=2180208&seqNum=9 . it installs the route with : a. What is known as one­to­nearest addressing in IPv6 ? a.1D STP. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802. unspecified address ANSWER: B 222. Equal cost load balancing ANSWER: B http://www.c. multicast d. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.

What are two requirements to configure a DHCP binding (Choose TWO) a. ANSWER: C 225. show ip dhcp conflict d. Subnet Mask ANSWER: B.223. Other Option. IP Address c. Hardware Address d. Dynamic . How can you determine if there is a DHCP conflict ? a. show ip dhcp pool b. Which type of MAC address learning has a maximum age? a. C 224. DHCP Pool b. show dhcp database c.

b. . Static c. network services virtualization d. 227. contractors and consultants. one more option ANSWER: A 226. Users are segmented into employees. c. Which major component of the network virtualization architecture isolate users according to policy? a. Each wireless access point requires its own firewall.b. path isolation ANSWER: B Network access control and segmentation of classesof users: Users are authenticated and either allowed or denied into a logical partition. with respective access to IT assets. policy enforcement b. They can be used with an intrusion prevention system. Which two statements about firewalls are true? a. and guests. Auto d. They can limit unauthorized user access to protect data. network access control c. This component identifies users who are authorized toaccess the network and then places them into the appropriate logical partition.

d. Where does the configuration reside when a helper address is configured to support DHCP ? a. e. Which command can you enter to configure an IPV6 floating static route? . d. ANSWER: B 230. ANSWER: D. They can be configured as host ports. They must be placed only at locations where the private network connects to the inter­ net. They can prevent attacks from the internet only. d. E 229. b. Exactly one access VLAN can be configured on the interface. ANSWER: A. on the router closest to the client.1Q encapsulation must be configured on the interface. e. 802. on the switch trunk interface. They can be configured as trunk ports. B 228. c. Two or more VLANs can be configured on the interface. Which two statements about data VLANs on access ports are true? ( Choose two) a. c. on the router closest to the server. on every router along the path. b.

It uses virtual MAC Address and Virtual IP Addresses ANSWER: C 232. Router(config)# ipv6 route FE80:0202::/32 serial 0/1 1 ANSWER: C 231. Spoofing attacks b. DDOS attacks e. ARP Attacks f. Brute force attacks ANSWER: A. botnet attacks d. Router(config)# ipv6 route::/0 serail0/1 c. How does NAT overloading provide one­to­many address translation? a. Router(config)# ipv6 route static resolve default b. B. Router(config)# ipv6 route FE80:0202::/32 serial 0/1 201 d.a. Which three options are types of Layer 2 network attack ? (Choose three) a. E . It converts IPV4 addresses to unused IPv6 Addresses c. Vlan Hopping c. It uses a pool of addresses b. It assigns a unique TCP/UDP port to each session d.

. Prevent switching loop in distance vector protocol c. Prevent routing loop in distance vector protocol b. Configure an IPv4 address on interface F0/0. Prevent switching loop in link­state protocol d. Enable IPv6 unicast routing on R1. What does split­horizon do? a. d.233. you notice that it failed to enable OSPF Which action can you take to correct the problem? a. After you apply the given configuration to R1. Prevent routing loop in link­state protocol ANSWER: A 234. c. Configure an autonomous system number on OSPF. Configure a loopback interface on R1 b.

) . six d. two c. Which three statements correcctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three. twelve ANSWER: A Section: (none) Explanation 236. one b.ANSWER: B 235. How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default VLAN is configured on the switches? a.

each interface does not require an IP ad­ dress.0.255. At the end of an RSTP election process. each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet.128.128. D.255. With a network wide mask of 255.0. ANSWER: B.255. c.255. d. With a network wide mask of 255. must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.254. With a network wide mask of 255. e.255. which access layer switch port will assume the dis­ carding role? .a. each interface does not require an IP ad­ dress.255. E 237. With a network wide mask of must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other. With a network wide mask of 255. b.

Why is flash memory erased prior to upgrading the IOS image from the TFTP server? . port Gi0/2 ANSWER: C 238. port Gi0/1 f. Switch3. port fa0/11 d. Switch3.a. Switch4. port fa0/1 b. port fa0/2 e. Switch3. port fa0/12 c. Switch4. Switch3.

Which of the following will correct the problems? (Choose two. The router cannot verify that the Cisco IOS image currently in flash is valid. it must be the only IOS image in flash. Flash memory on Cisco routers can contain only a single IOS image. ANSWER: C 239.) . c. d. In order for the router to use the new image as the default.a. The network shown in the diagram is experiencing connectivity problems. Erasing current flash content is requested during the copy dialog. b.

1. ACL analysis tool in APIC­EM d.1. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.2. Configure the gateway on Host B as 10. Configure the gateway on Host A as f. Configure the IP address of Host A as 10.a. ACL path analysis tool in APIC­EM b.1 b.255. APIC­EM automation scheduler ANSWER: A .1. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.240 ANSWER: B.2 e.254 c.1.2 d. D 240. I WAN application c. Configure the IP address of Host B as 10.2.255. Which utility can you use to identify the cause of a traffic­flow blockage between the two devices in a network? a.

It refuses to advertise the dynamic route to other neighbors b. Which IEEE mechanism is responsible for the authentication of devices when they attempt to connect to a local network? a. It prefers the static route ANSWER: D By default the administrative distance of a static route is 1. 802.241. you need to increase the AD of the static route so that it is higher than the dynamic routing protocol. meaning it will be preferred over all dynamic routing protocols.1x b.11 c. how does R1 respond? a.3x ANSWER: A 242. It disables the routing protocol d.2x d. It sends a withdrawal signal to the neighboring router c. 802. 243. Which two statements about floating static routes are true? (Choose two) a. If router R1 knows a static route to a destination network and then learns about the same destination network through a dynamic routing protocol. 802. 802. They are routes to the exact /32 destination address . If you want to have the dynamic routing protocol used and have the static route be used only as a backup.

Shutdown c. D 244. Manual c.b. Restrict b. Which port security mode can assist with troubleshooting by keeping count of violations? a. Protect ANSWER: A 245. Static ANSWER: A http://www. They are used as back­up routes when the primary route goes down e.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guide/c li/ CLIConfigurationGuide/MACAddress. They are used when a route to the destination network is missing c. Access d. They are dynamic routes that are learned from a server ANSWER: C. Dynamic b. Automatic d.cisco. What type of MAC address is aged automatically by the switch? a. They have a higher administrative distance than the default static route administrative distance d.htm .

A hardware address c.16. to which IP address does it send the packet ? . If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios­xml/ios/ipaddr_dhcp/configuration/15­mt/dhcp­15­mt ­book/ dhcpoverview.1. http://www. A DHCP pool e.cisco. An IP address d. An exclusion list b. C An address binding is the mapping between the client's IP and hardware addresses.1.246. What are the two minimum required components of a DHCP binding? (choose two) a. An ip­helper statement ANSWER: B. Refer to the exhibit.html 247.

a. 192.168.3 d. so it will be directed to the Gate of last resort 192. c.4 b. 192. It can lead to overloaded resources on the router.14.16.168. 192. 192. What is the danger of the permit any entry in a NAT access list? a. d. b.5 ANSWER: A It can't find the address 172.14.12. It can cause too many addresses to be assigned to the same interface. It can disable the overload command.13. It prevents the correct translation of IP addresses on the inside network.1.2 c.4 248. .

e. b. How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP addresses to hosts ? a.ANSWER: A 249. The number of collision domains would decrease. c. Addresses are permanently assigned so that the host uses the same address at all times. ANSWER: C The DHCP lifecycle consists of the following: Release: The client may decide at any time that it no longer wishes to use the IP address it was as­ signed. d. f. Addresses are leased to hosts. and may terminate the lease. The number of collision domains would remain the same.) a. The number of broadcast domains would increase. A host will usually keep the same address by periodically contacting the DHCP server to renew the lease. The number of broadcast domains would decrease. 250. . The number of collision domains would increase. b. releasing the IP address. The number of broadcast domains would remain the same. c. Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time. d. What two results would occur if the hub were to be replaced with a switch that is config­ ured with one Ethernet VLAN? (Choose two. Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to deter­ mine the length of the agreement.

standby 1 preempt d. no additional config is required b. Which configuration command can you apply to an HSRP router so that its local interface becomes active if all other routers in the group fail? a. Which reason for the problem is most likely true? a. standby 1 priority 250 ANSWER: A 252. you determine that Host A cannot ping Host B. .ANSWER: C. D 251. Refer to the exhibit. The subnet mask for Host A is incorrect. standby 1 track ethernet c.

d. c.b. ANSWER: A 255. The subnet mask for Host B is incorrect. The default gateway address for Host A is incorrect. The default gateway address for Host B is incorrect.255. Which effect of the passive­interface command on R1 is true? .255.224 =/27 253.

It removes the 172. It removes the 172. the passive­interface command restricts outgoing advertisements only.16. when used with Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP).0. It prevents interface Fa0/0 from sending updates. c. ANSWER: A With most routing protocols. . d. the effect is slight­ ly different.17.a. But. b.0 network from all updates on all interfaces on R1. Interface Fa 0/0 operates in RIPv1 mode.0.0 network from all updates on all interfaces on R1.

application e. D . C. presentation d. data­link f. Which three encapsulation layers in the OSI model are combined into the TCP/IP applica­ tion layer? (Choose three) a. network ANSWER: A.254. transport c. Session b.

Configure an IPv4 address on interface F0/0. c. d. Configure a loopback interface on R1. Enable IPV6 unicast routing on R1. After you apply the given configuration to R1. you notice that it failed to enable OSPF . . Configure an autonomous system number an OSPF.255. b.Which action can you take to insure that OSPF routes are added to the routing table? a.

e. When is the most appropriate time to escalate an issue that you troubleshooting? a. b. ANSWER: A. E . Which two command can you enter to display the current time sources statistics on devices ? (Choose TWO) a. When a more urgent issue that requires your intervention is detected. ANSWER: C Section: (none) Explanation 257. c. c.ANSWER: B 256. d. Show time. b. Show ntp status. d. Show ntp associations. When you have been unable to resolve the issue after 30 min. Show clock. When you have gathered all information about an issue. When you lack the proper to resolve the issue. Show clock details.

Which function does traffic shaping perform? a. or server to allow those devices to connect to the net­ work immediately.258. It buffers and queues excess packets. bypassing the listening and learning states. instead of waiting for the port to transition from the listening and learning states to the forwarding state. Learning d. You can use PortFast on switch or trunk ports that are connected to a single workstation. Forwarding c. Listening ANSWER: B PortFast causes a switch or trunk port to enter the spanning tree forwarding state immediately. When you enable PortFast on a switch port. 259. switch. the port immediately transitions to which state? a. . Blocking b.

Class A ANSWER: B 262. Which Cisco platform can verify ACLs ? a. ANSWER: A 260. It drops packets to control the output rate. Class D d. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller c. It buffers traffic without queuing it.b. Class B c.0. Which address class includes network 191. Cisco IOS­XE ANSWER: C 261. On which type of port can switches interconnect for multi­VLAN communication? . Cisco Prime Infrastructure b. Cisco APIC­EM d. It queues traffic without buffering it.168. d. c. Class C b.1/27? a.

Refer to the exhibit. FastEthernet0/1 b. FastEthernet0/0 c. FastEthernet1/1 ANSWER: D . interface port b. If R1 sends traffic to 192.101. trunk port ANSWER: D 263. switch port d.168.a.45 the traffic is sent through which interface? a. FastEthernet1/0 d. access port c.

Which IPV6 function serves the same purpose as ARP entry verification on an IPv4 net­ work? a. It discards the packet d.264. neighbor discovery verification d. It sends the packet to the next hop address b. Which command can you enter to verify link speed and duplex setting on the interface? . how does it handle the packet? a. MAC address table verification c. When a router is unable to find a known route in the routing table. interface ip address verification b. Routing table entry verification ANSWER: C 266. Refer to exhibit. It sends the packet to the gateway of last resort c. It sends the packet over the route with the best metric ANSWER: B 265.

They use the prefix FEC0::/10 d. They are identical to IPv4 private addresses. b. D 268. dynamic desirable mode. trunk b. router#show ip protocols b. access c. They use the prefix FC00::/7 e. router#show startup­config c. dynamic desirable d. They are defined by RFC 1884 c.a. dynamic auto ANSWER: C . Which DTP switch port mode allows the port to create a trunk link if the neighboring port is in trunk mode. Which two statements about unique local IPv6 addresses are true? a. or dynamic auto mode? a. router#show interface gig 0/1 ANSWER: D 267. ANSWER: A. They can be routed on the IPv6 global internet. router#show line d.

Verify that the router and the host use the same subnet mask. c. Cisco Discovery Protocol in global configuration mode ANSWER: B Configure the Switch Port to Carry Both Voice and Data TrafficWhen you connect an IP phone to a switch using a trunk link. As all the VLANs for a particular interface are trunked to the phone. Verify that a default route is configured. In order to avoid this.269. Verify that the router interface IP address is correct. Trunking also causes unnecessary broadcast / multicast / unknown unicast traffic to hit the phone link. it can cause high CPU utilization in the switches. it increases the number of STP instances the switch has to manage. Because voice and data traffic can travel through the same port. d. Verify that the DNS is configured correctly. you should specify a different VLAN for each type of traffic. remove the trunk configuration and keep the voice and access VLAN configured along with Quality of Service (QoS). Technically. You can configure a switch port to forward voice and data traffic on different VLANs. PortFast on the interface b. Verify that the route appears in the Routing table ANSWER: A. This increases the CPU utilization. which three router configu­ ration checks you must perform? (CHOOSE THREE) a. f. When you troubleshoot an IPv4 connectivity issue on a router. the interface as an access port to allow the voice VLAN ID c. it is still a trunk. . but it is called a Multi­VLAN Access Port (MVAP). a voice VLAN ID in interface and global configuration mode d. Con­ figure IP phone ports with a voice VLAN configuration. This configuration creates a pseudo trunk. e. C. F 270. Verify that the router firmware is up­to­date. b. Configuration of which option is required on a Cisco switch for the Cisco IP phone to work? a.

The Port Fast feature is automatically enabled when voice VLAN is configured. 12 hours . RFC 4193 b.but does not require you to manually prune the unnecessary VLANs. RFC 1918 ANSWER: D 273. What is the default lease time for a DHCP binding? a. IEEE 802. RFC 1519 c. IEEE 802. Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic? a. When you disable voice VLAN.1p ANSWER: C 272. IEEE 802. 24 hours b.1Q d. The voice VLAN feature ena­ bles access ports to carry IP voice traffic from an IP phone. The voice VLAN feature is disabled by default. IEEE 802. the Port Fast feature is not automatically disabled 271. Which RFC was created to alleviate the depletion of IPv4 public addresses? a. RFC 1518 d.1w b.1D c.

To change the lease value for an IP address. 48 hours d. PAT d. static NAT ANSWER: D Network address translation (NAT) is the process of modifying IP address information in IP packet headers while in transit across a traffic routing device. mesh . Which NAT type is used to translate a single inside address to a single outside address? a.c. There are two different types of NAT: NAT PAT 275. which is the amount of time that the address is valid. star c. use the fol­ lowing command in DHCP pool configuration mode: 274. bus b. each IP address assigned by a DHCP Server comes with a one­ day lease. NAT overload c. 36 hours ANSWER: A By default. dynamic NAT b. Which network topology allows all traffic to flow through a central hub? a.

It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different VLANs.freeccnaworkbook. ANSWER: D https://www. 1 d. ring ANSWER: B 276. By default.com/workbooks/ccna/configuring­inter­vlan­routing­router­on­a­ stick 277.d. how many MAC addresses are permitted to be learned on a switch port with port security enabled? a. 8 b. It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different VLANs on the same subnet c. 0 . 2 c. It requires the native VLAN to be disabled. Which statement about a router­on­a­stick is true? a. b. Its data plane routes traffic for a single VLAN over two or more switches. d.

directed neighbors d. the effect is slightly dif­ ferent. access point b. wireless controller d. When enabled. Which device allows users to connect to the network using a single or double radio? a. With most routing protocols. passive­interface c. OSPF areas ANSWER: B You can use the passive­interface command in order to control the advertisement of routing in­ formation. which feature prevents routing protocols from sending hello messages on an interface? a. but it also sup­ presses incoming routing updates. But. virtual links b. which results in the loss of their neighbor relationship. The command enables the suppression of routing updates over some interfaces while it allows updates to be exchanged normally over other interfaces. This stops not only routing updates from being advertised. firewall ANSWER: A 279. switch c. when used with Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP). This document demonstrates that use of the passive­interface command in EIGRP sup­ presses the exchange of hello packets between two routers. the passive­interface command restricts outgoing advertisements only. This document also discusses the configuration required in order to allow the suppression of outgoing routing updates.ANSWER: C 278. while it also allows incoming routing updates to be learned normally from the neighbor .

R e. VLAN 10 spanning­tree output is displayed c. Which route source code represents the routing protocol with a default administrative dis­ tance of 90 in the routing table? a. E c. The VLAN 10 VTP configuration is displayed b.280. VLAN 10 is added to the VLAN database ANSWER: D 281. D d. O . S b. Which statement describes the effect of this configuration? a. The VLAN 10 configuration is saved when the router exits VLAN configuration mode d. Refer to the exhibit.

Default Distance Value TableThis table lists the administrative distance default values of the protocols that Cisco supports: Route Source Default Distance Values Connected interface Static route Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) summary route External Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) Internal EIGRP IGRP OSPF Intermediate System­to­Intermediate System (IS­IS) Routing Information Protocol (RIP) Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) On Demand Routing (ODR) External EIGRP Internal BGP Unknown* 282.ANSWER: C SStatic EEGP DEIGRP RRIP OOSPF Default Administrative distance of EIGRP protocol is 90 then answer is C. Cisco Discovery Protocol traffic travels on the native VLAN by default . Which statement about native VLAN traffic is true? a.

Which component of the routing table ranks routing protocols according to their prefer­ ences? a. The native VLAN is typically disabled for security reasons ANSWER: A 283. The TCAM table stores destination MAC addresses b. If the destination MAC address is unknown. d. The CAM table is used to determine whether traffic is permitted or denied on a switch d. routing protocol code ANSWER: A Administrative distance ­ This is the measure of trustworthiness of the source of the route. administrative distance is . the frame is flooded to every port that is configured in the same VLAN except on the port that it was received on. next hop c. Which statement about unicast frame forwarding on a switch is true? a. If a router learns about a destination from more than one routing protocol. c. Control plane traffic is blocked on the native VLAN. metric d. The source address is used to determine the switch port to which a frame is forwarded ANSWER: B 284.b. Traffic on the native VLAN is tagged with 1 by default c. administrative distance b.

The number of broadcast domains would increase.compared and the preference is given to the routes with lower administrative distance. it is the believability of the source of the route 285. What two results would occur if the hub were to be replaced with a switch that is configured with one Ethernet VLAN?(choose two) a. In other words. C . d. The number of broadcast domains would remain the same. The number of collision domains would decrease. e. ANSWER: B. The number of collision domains would increase c. Refer to the exhibit. b. The number of collision domains would remain the same.

R1 and R3 are configured in different areas. d. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two. 32769: 22­33­44­55­66­78 ANSWER: A 287. R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR. 32768: 11­22­33­44­55­66 b.) a. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3. f. b. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance. Refer to the graphic. e. Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection process? a. 32769: 11­22­33­44­55­65 d.286. so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3 c. . A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established. 32768: 22­33­44­55­66­77 c.

E 289. PEAP b. What are authentication types of MLPPP? (CHOOSE TWO) a. LEAP c. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown ANSWER: A. PAP d.) a. CHAP e. What is the effect of the overload keyword in a static NAT translation configuration? . D http://www.cx/networking­topics/network­address­translation­nat/233­nat 290. to allow communication between different devices on the same network f.firewall.ANSWER: D. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet d. TACACS+ ANSWER: C. to allow communication with devices on a different network c. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first e. For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2 b. F 288.

ANSWER: A 291. b. Eliminates the need for NAT d. It enables the use of a secondary pool of IP addresses when the first pool is depleted c. d. D 292. VTP domain names must be different b. What is the use of IPv4 private space (choose two) a. What are the requirements for running VTP (choose two) a. It enables the inside interface to receive traffic. VTP server must have the highest revision numbers d. allow intra­company communication ANSWER: B. D . connect applications together b. It enables the outside interface to forward traffic.a. It enables port address translation. VTP domain names must be the same c. All devices need to have the same VTP version ANSWER: B. save global address space c.

8. The interface number b. Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU on a bridge? a. Assuming a subnet mask of 255. The backup port c.248.293.0 d. The hello time ANSWER: B . three of the following addresses are valid host addresses. The VLAN priority d. Which are these addresses? (Choose three.16. 172. The designated port b.31.255.) a. D 294.16. Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface as the preferred forwarding interface? a. 172.9. The port priority c. 172. C.16. 172.16.0 c.0.20. The root port ANSWER: D 295.0 ANSWER: A. The alternate port d.0 b.

Which switch provides the spanning­tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers? a. Switch1 b. Switch3 . Switch2 c. A switch in VTP transparent mode save the VLAN databases to the running configuration only ANSWER: A 297. The switch must be in config­vlan mode before you configure an extended VLAN c. Which statement about VLAN configuration is true? a. The switch must be in VTP server or transparent mode before you can configure a VLAN b.296. Dynamic inter­VLAN routing is supported on VLAN2 through VLAN 4064 d. Refer to the exhibit.

11a node broadcasts within the range of an 802. Which command can you enter to configure a local username with an encrypted password and EXEC mode user privileges? a. when a network device fails to forward packets b.11g access point? . when the control plane fails to respond ANSWER: A. when you require administrator access from multiple locations e. Switch4 ANSWER: C 298. In which two situations should you use out­of­band management? a.d. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 1 password 7 08314D5D1A48 b. B 299. when you require ROMMON access c. when management applications need concurrent access to the device d. What happens when an 802. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 15 password 0 PASSWORD1 ANSWER: B 300. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 1 password 7 PASSWORD1 c. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 15 password 0 08314D5D1A48 d.

It identifies the location of source addresses for outgoing packets to be translated using access or route maps. It must be configured if static NAT is used d. Which statement about the inside interface configuration in a NAT deployment is true? a. It identifies the public IP address that traffic will use to reach the internet. The node transmits. b. ANSWER: D 301. Which value is indicated by the next hop in a routing table? a. but the node is unable to receive. c. c. A connection occurs. Both the node and the access point are unable to transmit. It is defined globally b. ANSWER: B .a. exit interface IP address for forwarding the packets ANSWER: B 302. preference of the route source b. but the access point is unable to receive. how the route was learned d. d. IP address of the remote router for forwarding the packets c. The access point transmits.

Which option is the default switch port port­security violation mode? a. Which entity assigns IPv6 addresses to end users? a. shutdown vlan d. shutdown b. ISPs ANSWER: D 305. Which value indicates the distance from the ntp authoritative time source? a. priority b. RIR d.303. protect c. restrict ANSWER: A Error! Hyperlink reference not valid. layer d. stratum . location c. APNIC c. 304. ICANN b.

authorization b. peer c. 1550 . B. C 308. Which three features are represented by A letter in AAA? (Choose Three) a. Which of the following are the valid numbers of standard ACL? (Choosse TWO) a. authority ANSWER: A. 50 b. accessibility f. client ANSWER: C 307. accountability e.ANSWER: D 306. authentication d. server b. Which NTP type designates a router without an external reefrence clock as an authoritative time source? a. master d. accounting c.

it uses a pool of address b. it assigns a unique TCP/UDP port to each session ANSWER: D PAT assigns a unique source port for each UDP or TCP session 310. 2050 ANSWER: A. B 309. encrypted d. it uses virtual mac address and virtual IP address d. 150 d. unsecured c. uses port 22 b.c. How does NAT overloading provide one to many address translation? a. it converts ipv4 address to unused IPv6 address c. What are two statement are true for SSH? a. 1250 e. operates at transport . most common remote­access method e.

Default route b. No Answer ANSWER: C 312. ACL blocking port 23 b. None of the above ANSWER: C 313. ntp master . C 311. ntp broadcast c. If a route is not present in the routing table for a particular destination.ANSWER: A. Flood c. what would the router do? a. ntp peer b. Host is able to ping a web server but it is not able to do HTTP request. ACL blocking port 80 d. Which NTP command configures the local devices as an NTP reference clock source? a. Drop d. ACL blocking All ports c. What could be the issue? a. ACL blocking port 443 e.

Access­list 2500 deny tcp any host 192.1 d.0. if multiple prefixes are assigned to one interface. physical connection is needed .d.168.1.168. In IPv6. The higher prefix b.168.1 eq 22 ANSWER: B 315. Access list 101 deny tvp any host 192. Access­list 50 deny 192.0.1 0. What will you do if you forgot the password of your router? a. remote connection b. Which item represents the standard IP ACL? a. Access­list 110 permit any any b. The lower address ANSWER: A 316. which prefix is chosen? a. The higher address d.1. The lower prefix c.255 c. ntp server ANSWER: C 314.1.

Where information about untrusted hosts are stored? a. which contains information about un­ trusted hosts with leased IP addresses. ANSWER: C . PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN. PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location. CAM table b. XXXX d.c. Trunk table c. What is one benefit of PVST+? a. 318. b. PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network. to provide optimized bandwidth usage. PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops. c. d. MAC table d. binding database ANSWER: D Builds and maintains the DHCP snooping binding database. XXXX ANSWER: B 317.

the VLAN ID can be determined from the source MAC address and the MAC address table. this process ensures that the network topology is maintained and optimized per VLAN. 320. 319.1Q trunk. When a packet is received from an 802. d. c. This root switch propagates the spanning­tree information associated with that VLAN to all other switches in the network. ANSWER: B Each VLAN resides in its own broadcast domain. so incoming frames with unknown destinations are only transmitted to ports that reside in the same VLAN as the incoming frame. which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning­tree instance of VLAN 1? a. You can create different logical topologies by using the VLANs on your network to ensure that all of your links are used but that no one link is oversubscribed. Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true? a. the switch with the lowest MAC address c.The PVST+ provides Layer 2 load­balancing for the VLAN on which it runs. b. Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration. Ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that VLANs can span across the ports. Unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same VLAN. Broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on differ­ ent VLAN. the switch with the highest MAC address b. the switch with the highest IP address . Each instance of PVST+ on a VLAN has a single root switch. Because each switch has the same information about the network.

E 322. b. e. the switch with the lowest IP address ANSWER: B Each switch in your network will have a Bridge ID Priority value. ANSWER: A. the BID would be 32768:11­22­33­44­55­66. c. lt makes network functions programmable. Refer to the exhibit.768 and a MAC address of 11­22­33­ 44­55­66. The lowest BID will win the election process. For example. lt tracks license usage and Cisco lOS versions. . lt automates network actions between legacy equipment. more commonly referred to as a BID. 321. This BID is a combination of a default priority value and the switch's MAC address.d. lt provides robust asset management. Which two options are primary responsibilities of the APlC­EM controller? (Choose two. with the priority value listed first. lt automates network actions between different device types. Therefore. if the switch priority is left at the default.) a. the MAC address is the deciding factor in the root bridge election. if a Cisco switch has the default priority value of 32. d.

Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.1q or ISL. f. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type. so each one must be configured for 802. Also. b. This is known as the router on a stick configuration.) a. d. ANSWER: D. e. subinterfaces must be used. . both ends of the trunk must agree on the encapsulation type.Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhib­ it? (Choose two. c. F In order for multiple VLANs to connect to a single physical interface on a Cisco router. for any trunk to be formed. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces. one for each VLAN.

324. path cost b.) a. lf RTR01 as configured as shown.16.0 . 172.0 b. port priority number and MAC address ANSWER: A The path cost to the root bridge is the most important value to determine which port will become the root port on each non­root switch. Refer to the exhibit. highest port priority number e.4. 10.323. the port with lowest cost to the root bridge will become root port (on non­root switch).0. lowest port MAC address c. VTP revision number d. What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each non­ root switch in a spanning­tree topology? a.0. which three addresses will be received by other routers that are running ElGRP on the network? (Choose three. In particular.

e.2.0 ANSWER: B. C.c. lt can run on a UNlX server.168. lt authenticates against the user database on the local device.168.0 f. d. spanning­tree uplinkfast b.16. D 325. lt is more secure than AAA authentication. 172. Which command enables RSTP on a switch? a. spanning­tree backbonefast d. spanning­tree mode rapid­pvst c. 192. lt is enabled on Cisco routers by default. b. Which two statements about TACACS+ are true? (Choose two. spanning­tree mode mst ANSWER: B . 192.3. ANSWER: A.0 d.) a. E 326. lt uses a managed database. c.0 e.

An additional broadcast domain will be created. IP address utilization will be more efficient. More collision domains will be created. The RSTP 802. . What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch? a. What happens if you set the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode? a. The command is rejected. d. The port turns amber. d. To activate the Rapid­PVST+ protocol: switch(config)#spanning­tree mode rapid­pvst 327. The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan. called Rapid­PVST+. Cisco has its own proprietary implementa­ tion of RSTP. b. VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. ANSWER: C The "switchport access vlan 3"will put that interface as belonging to VLAN 3 while also updated the VLAN database automatically to include VLAN 3. A switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing departmental traffic.dat.1w protocol is an IEEE open implementation. b. More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously. ANSWER: D 328.1D protocol.Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) is an enhancement of the original STP 802. c. The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually. c. that includes the benefits of its Per­VLAN spanning tree protocols.

d. 802. "VLAN mismatch" can cause traffic from one vlan to leak into another vlan.1Q giants frames could saturate the link. What will happen in this scenario? a.329. c. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send untagged frames. b. but on CAT2 the native VLAN is not specified. Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection between them using ports Fa0/13. An 802. On CAT1.1Q trunk is configured between the two switches. 330.1Q link. ANSWER: C A "native VLAN mismatch" error will appear by CDP if there is a native VLAN mismatch on an 802. A native VLAN mismatch error message will appear. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send tagged frames. VLAN 10 is chosen as native. Refer to the exhibit .

All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA can
communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output shown,
what is the most likely problem?

a. The access link needs to be configured in multiple VLANs.

b. The link between the switches is configured in the wrong VLAN.

c. The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk.

d. VTP is not configured to carry VLAN information between the switches.

e. Switch IP addresses must be configured in order for traffic to be forwarded between the


In order to pass traffic from VLANs on different switches, the connections between the switches
must be configured as trunk ports.

331. What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco Catalyst

a. It creates a VLAN 999 interface.

b. It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.

c. It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.

d. It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic.


Configuring the Native VLAN for Untagged Traffic A trunk port configured with 802.1Q tagging can
receive both tagged and untagged traffic. By default, the switch forwards untagged traffic in the
native VLAN configured for the port. The native VLAN is VLAN 1 by default.

332. Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?

a. Bandwidth

b. Bandwidth and Delay

c. Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU

d. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load


The well­known formula to calculate OSPF cost is Cost = 100 / Bandwidth

333. Which command shows your active Telnet connections?

a. show cdp neigbors

b. show session

c. show users

d. show vty logins


The "show users" shows telnet/ssh connections to your router while "show sessions" shows
telnet/ssh connections from your router (to other devices). The question asks about "your active
Telnet connections", meaning connections from your router so the answer should be A.

334. Refer to the exhibit.

. c. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1.10. d.168. b. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1.192/26 LAN be forwarded to 192.1? a.Based on the exhibited routing table. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2.168.10. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1. how will packets from a host within the 192.

168.168. Which reason for the problem is most likely true? a. c.0.12. e.0. b. d.10. The OSPF process ID is incorrect.168. An ARP table entry is missing for 192. The OSPF area number is incorrect.ANSWER: C 335. ANSWER: A .10.12 0/24 network is missing from OSPF. The 192. A VLAN number is incorrect for 192.168. You have discovered that computers on the 192. Refer to the exhibit. but they cannot connect to any resources on a remote network.0/24 network can ping their default gateway.

Switch(config­if)#switchport mode dynamic desirable e. Switch(config­if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 20 d. 4 c.336. 2 b. Which WAN topology provides a direct connection from each site to all other sites on the network? a. single­homed b. Switch(config­if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q f.) a. full mesh c. 6 ANSWER: A 337. Switch(config­if)#switchport trunk native vlan 20 ANSWER: B. E 338. Which three commands must you enter to create a trunk that allows VLAN 20? (Choose three. Switch(config­if)#switchport mode trunk c. If three devices are plugged into one port on a switch and two devices are plugged into a different port. how many collision domains are on the switch? a. point­to­point . Switch(config­if)#switchport mode dynamic auto b. C. 5 d.

enable secret password c. Telnet b. tty password b. username password ANSWER: B. C 340. hub­and­spoke ANSWER: B 339.d. Auxiliary c. aux password e. Refer to the exhibit. SSH . console password f. vty password d.) a. Which user­mode password has just been set? a. Which two passwords must be supplied in order to connect by Telnet to a properly secured Cisco switch and make changes to the device configuration? (Choose two.

d. Console ANSWER: A .

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