CCNA – Basic Questions

http://www.9tut.com/new-ccna-basic-questions

Question 1
What is the first 24 bits in a MAC address called?
A. NIC
B. BIA
C. OUI
D. VAI

Answer: C

Question 2
Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two)

A. There are two broadcast domains in the network.
B. There are four broadcast domains in the network.
C. There are six broadcast domains in the network.
D. There are four collision domains in the network.
E. There are five collision domains in the network.
F. There are seven collision domains in the network.

Answer: A F

Question 3
Refer to the exhibit:
System flash director
File Length Name/status
1 3802992 c827v-y6-mz.121-1.XB
[3803056 bytes used,4585552 available, 8388608 total]
8192K bytes of processor board System flash(Read/Write)
The technician wants to upload a new IOS in the router while keeping the existing IOS. What is the
maximum size of an IOS file that could be loaded if the original IOS is also kept in flash?
A. 3MB
B. 5MB
C. 7MB
D. 4MB

Answer: D
Question 4
Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the output MTU 1500 bytes?

A. The maximum number of bytes that can traverse this interface per second is 1500.
B. The minimum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
C. The minimum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
D. The minimum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
E. The maximum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
F. The maximum frame size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.

Answer: E
Question 5
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair
network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?

A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.

Answer: C
Question 6
In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two)
A. when they receive a special token
B. when there is a carrier
C. when they detect no other devices are sending
D. when the medium is idle
E. when the server grants access

Answer: C D
Question 7
For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two)
A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2
B. to allow communication with devices on a different network
C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet
D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first
E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network
F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown

Answer: A E
Question 8
Which two locations can be configured as a source for the IOS image in the boot system command?
(Choose two)
A. RAM
B. NVRAM
C. flash memory
D. HTTP server
E. TFTP server
F. Telnet server

a modem converts digital signals from a router to a leased line. A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a leased line. A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a phone line. It attempts to boot from a TFTP server C. C. A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a leased line. a modem converts digital signals from a router to a phone line. D. a modem converts analog signals from a router to a leased line. Answer: D Question 10 A Cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to find and load an IOS image.Answer: C E Question 9 What is the difference between a CSU/DSU and a modem? A. What function does the router perform next? A. A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a phone line. It inspects the configuration file in NVRAM for boot instructions Answer: A . B. a modem converts analog signals from a router to a phone line. It checks the configuration register B. It loads the first image file in flash memory D.

network D. internet C.1 255.com/new-ccna-osi-tcpip-model Question 1 Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model? A.255.168.9tut. application B. transport Answer: B Question 2 Refer to exhibit.4 no service timestamps log datetime msec no service timestamps debug datetime msec service password-encryption ! hostname Router ! enable secret 5 $1$mERr$hx5rVt7rPNoS4wqbXKX7m0 ! interface FastEthernet0/0 ip address 192. Router#show running-config Building configuration… Current configuration : 659 bytes ! version 12.1.255.CCNA – OSI & TCP/IP Model http://www.0 ip access-group 101 in duplex auto speed auto ! access-1ist 101 deny tcp any any eq 22 access-1ist 101 permit ip any any ! line con 0 password 7 0822455D0A16 login line vty 0 4 login .

Received = 0. show version E. What is the cause of this failure? A. what should be checked on the router.10. application layer .10. B. At which OSI layer is the problem? C:\> ping 10. show processes F. the version of the bootstrap software present on the router D. and which command should be used to gather this information? (Choose two) A. data link layer B.10. upgraded version of the IOS. Request timed out. Lost – 4 (100% loss) A.line vty 5 14 login ! end A network administrator cannot establish a Telnet session with the indicated router.10.1 Pinging 10.10. Ping statistics for 10. Request timed out. C.10.1: Packets: sent – 4. Request timed out.1 and sees the output as shown.1 with 32 bytes of data: Request timed out. D.10. A Level 5 password is not set. the amount of available ROM B. Answer: C Question 3 Before installing a new. the amount of available flash and RAM memory C. show running-config Answer: B D Question 4 Refer to the exhibit. The console password is missing. The vty password is missing.10. An administrator pings the default gateway at 10. An ACL is blocking Telnet access.

The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information. session layer E. Layer 2 B. network layer Answer: E Question 5 At which layer of the OSI model does PPP perform? A. C. data link . D. internet F. Layer 5 Answer: A Question 6 Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two) A. application B. Layer 3 C. access layer D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment. B. Layer 4 D.C. presentation C. Answer: A D Question 7 A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. transport E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link. session D. E. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation? A. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.

data link E. data link B. session B. network C. session E. transport Answer: A Question 9 Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication? A. The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen? A. transport B. physical D.Answer: A Question 8 At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops? A. network C. network C. transport Answer: D . application Answer: E Question 10 A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. physical D. presentation D.

CCNA – IOS Questions http://www.2.2. C.bin… Erasing flash before copying? [confirm] Erasing the flash filesystem will remove all files! continue? [confirm] Erasing device Eeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeee Eeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeee …erased Erase of flash: complete . Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.9tut.167/ c1600-k8sy-mz. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process. Router(config)# password-encryption C.l23-16a. E.com/new-ccna-ios-questions Question 1 Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords? A. Why is flash memory erased prior to upgrading the IOS image from the TFTP server? Router# copy tftp flash Address or name of remote host []? 192.168.168. Physically secure the interface. D.123-16a. Answer: D E Question 3 Refer to the exhibit. Router# password-encryption Answer: C Question 2 What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two) A.bin]? Accessing tftp://192.167 Source filename []? c1600-k8sy-mz. Administratively shut down the interface. Router# service password-encryption B. Router(config)# service password-encryption D. B.bin Destination filename [c1600-k8sy-mz.123-16a.

it must be the only IOS image in flash. by configuring an MD5 encrypted key to be used by routing protocols to validate routing exchanges E. by automatically suggesting encrypted passwords for use in configuring the router Answer: B Question 5 What is a global command? A. by encrypting all passwords passing through the router B.l23-16a. Answer: C Question 4 How does using the service password encryption command on a router provide additional security? A. Erasing current flash content is requested during the copy dialog.168. a command that is universal in application and supports all protocols D. The router cannot verify that the Cisco IOS image currently in flash is valid B.Loading c1600-k8sy-mz. a command that is available in every release of IOS.167 (via Ethernet0): !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! [OK – 6888962/13777920 bytes] verifying checksum… OK (0x7BF3) 6888962 bytes copied in 209. In order for the router to use the new image as the default. by encrypting passwords in the plain text configuration file C. a command that is implemented in all foreign and domestic IOS versions E. a command that is set once and affects the entire router Answer: E . C. regardless of the version or deployment status B. D.bin from 192.920 secs (32961 bytes/sec) Router# A. by requiring entry of encrypted passwords for access to the device D.2. a command that can be entered in any configuration mode C. Flash memory on Cisco routers can contain only a single IOS image.

show queue Answer: A . show cdp neighbors C. show ip route E. show interfaces Answer: A D F Question 8 Which command shows your active Telnet connections? A. It configures SSH globally for all logins. It configures a Cisco network device to use the SSH protocol on incoming communications via the virtual terminal ports. show users D. winipcfg F. D. ipconfig D. It allows seven failed login attempts before the VTY lines are temporarily shutdown. Answer: D Question 7 Which router IOS commands can be used to troubleshoot LAN connectivity problems? (Choose three) A. C. ping B. tracert C. B. show sessions B. It configures the virtual terminal lines with the password 030752180500.Question 6 Refer to the exhibit. line vty 0 4 password 7 030752180599 login transport input ssh What is the effect of the configuration that is shown? A. It tells the router or switch to try to establish an SSh connection first and if that foils to use Telnet. E.

run cdp Answer: C Question 10 A network administrator needs to allow only one Telnet connection to a router.1. service password-encryption line vty 0 4 login password cisco Answer: C Question 11 What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command? .0.0 0.168. the password for Telnet access should be encrypted. service password-encryption line vty 1 login password cisco D. For anyone viewing the confguration and issuing the show run command.255 line vty 0 4 login password cisco access-class 1 B. cdp enable C. enable cdp B. service password-encryption access-list 1 permit 192. enable password secret line vty 0 login password cisco C.0. Which set of commands will accomplish this task? A.Question 9 Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly connected Cisco devices? A. cdp run D.

It will encrypt all current and future passwords. Only the enable password will be encrypted. B.A. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted D. Answer: E . It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration. C. E. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.

16. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.1.1 255. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router.16. NCP B.255.1 255.1. LCP E.252 Main(config-if)# no shut B.252 Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf Main(config-if)# no shut Answer: B .252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay Main(config-if)# authentication chap Main(config-if)# no shut D. How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection? A.252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp Main(config-if)# no shut C.255.1. DLCI Answer: D Question 2 A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location.1 255.255.255.16.1.9tut.255.16. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.255. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)#ip address 172.255. ISDN C.1 255.com/new-ccna-wan-questions Question 1 Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options? A. SUP D.CCNA – WAN Questions http://www.255.

Frame Relay Answer: B Question 5 Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication with PAP as the fallback method on a serial interface? A. A modem terminates a digital local loop C. (config-if)# ppp authentication chap fallback ppp Answer: C Question 6 Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three. X. (config-if)# ppp authentication chap pap D.Question 3 Which two options are valid WAN connectivity methods? (Choose two) A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop B. HDLC B. A modem terminates an analog local loop . WAP C. DSL D. (config-if)# authentication ppp chap fallback ppp B. (config-if)# authentication ppp chap pap C. PPP C. L2TPv3 E.) A. PPP B. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop D. Ethernet Answer: A C Question 4 Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has built-in security mechanisms? A.25 D.

CHAP authentication passwords are sent in plaintext. B. A router is commonly considered a DTE device F. CHAP authentication is performed only upon link establishment. F. E. C. A router is commonly considered a DCE device Answer: A D E Question 7 Which two statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP link are true? (Choose two) A. D. Answer: B C . CHAP has no protection from playback attacks. CHAP uses a three-way handshake.E. CHAP uses a two-way handshake. CHAP authentication periodically occurs after link establishment.

B. Switch-1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data originated. Switch-1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address. D. Switch-1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00b0.9tut. Answer: C Question 2 .d056. C.CCNA – Switch Questions http://www. Switch-1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated.efa4.com/new-ccna-switch-questions Question 1 Refer to the exhibit. What will Switch-1 do with this data? A. Switch-1 will forward the data to its default gateway.

8. Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task? A.8. IP address utilization will be more efficient. B. SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1 SwitchB(config)#ip address 192.8.255.168.252 255.254 255.0 SwitchB(config)#no shutdown D.0 SwitchB(config)#ip default-gateway 192. More collision domains will be created. More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.8. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green.255. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch? A.252 255.255.255.255. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three) .0 SwitchB(config)#no shutdown Answer: B Question 3 A switch is configured with all ports assigned to vlan 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing departmental traffic. SwitchB(config)#interface FastEthernet 0/1 SwitchB(config)#ip address 192.168. C.255.255. SwitchB(config)#ip default-gateway 192. SwitchB(config)#ip default-network 192.255.168.255.0 SwitchB(config)#no shutdown B. Answer: D Question 4 Refer to the exhibit. D.168. An additional broadcast domain will be created.8.254 SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1 SwitchB(config)#ip address 192.0 SwitchB(config)#no shutdown C.168.A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management workstation connected SwitchA.254 SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1 SwitchB(config)#ip address 192.8.255.252 255.168.8.168.252 255.

F. Ensure the switch has power. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables. D. E. Answer: B D F Question 5 Refer to the exhibit.A. What two results would occur if the hub were to be replaced with a switch that is configured with one Ethernet VLAN? (Choose two) . Reseat all cables. Reboot all of the devices. B. C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.

A. The number of collision domains would remain the same.
B. The number of collision domains would decrease.
C. The number of collision domains would increase.
D. The number of broadcast domains would remain the same.
E. The number of broadcast domains would decrease.
F. The number of broadcast domains would increase.

Answer: C D
Question 6
Refer to the exhibit. Give this output for SwitchC, what should the network administrator‘s next
action be?

A. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchC‘s fa0/1 port.
B. Check the duplex mode for SwitchC‘s fa0/1 port.
C. Check the duplex mode for SwitchA‘s fa0/2 port.
D. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchA‘s fa0/2 port.

Answer: C
Question 7

Which three statements accurately describe layer 2 Ethernet switches? (choose three)
A. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
B. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination.it uses ARP to resolve the address.
C. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share vlan information.
D. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will
contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast
domain will have only one root port.
E. Establishing vlans increases the number of broadcast domains.
F. Switches that are configured with vlans make forwarding decisions based on both layer 2 and
layer 3 address information.

Answer: A D E
Question 8
Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?
A. Broadcast frames are never sent to switches.
B. Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.
C. A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.
D. Broadcasts only use network layer addressing.
E. A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch.

Answer: C
Question 9
Refer to the exhibit:

Which two statements are true of the interfaces on Switch1? (Choose two)
A. Interface FastEthernet0/2 has been disabled.
B. Multiple devices are connected directly to FastEthernet0/1.
C. FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk link.
D. FastEthernet0/1 is connected to a host with multiple network interface cards
E. FastEthernet0/5 has statically assigned MAC addresses.
F. A hub is connected directly to FastEthernet0/5

Answer: C F
Question 10

but pings from host B to other two hosts are successful. Host B and the switch need to be in the same subnet.The network administrator normally establishes a Telnet session with the switch from host A. The switch needs an appropriate default gateway assigned. What is the issue for this problem? A. D. B. Answer: B . C. The administrator‘s attempt to establish a connect via Telnet to the switch from host B fails. Host B need to be assigned an IP address in vlan 1. The switch interface connected to the router is down.

Switch1 (config)# interface fa0/1 Switch 1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk Answer: C Question 3 . source switch port D.24.com/new-ccna-switch-questions-2 Question 1 What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame? A. which of the following commands should be issued on Switch1 to correct this problem? A. Switch1 (config)# line con0 Switch1 (config-line)# password cisco Switch1 (config-line)#login B. Switch1 (config)# ip default-gateway 192. Given the information in the graphic and assuming that the router and Switch2 are configured properly.255. Switch1 (config)# interface fa0/1 Switch 1(config-if)# duplex full Switch 1(config-if)# speed 100 E.168.CCNA – Switch Questions 2 http://www.24. Switch1 (config)# interface fa0/1 Switch 1(config-if)# ip address 192. although the hosts attached to Switch1 can ping the interface Fa0/0 of the router. destination MAC address Answer: F Question 2 The network administrator cannot connect to Switch1 over a Telnet session.3 255.0 C. source MAC address B.1 D. source IP address C.255.9tut.168. destination port address F. destination IP address E.

six C. one B.How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default vlan is configured on the switches? A. twelve D. two Answer: A Question 4 Refer to the exhibit. Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed? .

it will not be blocked by STP. As FastEthernet0/12 will be the last to come up. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change. B. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP. Answer: B . D. C.A.

CCNA – VLAN Questions
http://www.9tut.com/new-ccna-vlan-questions

Question 1
What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three)
A. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the
same network infrastructure
B. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains,thus increasing
their size.
C. A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other
network traffic.
D. Port-based vlans increase switch-port use efficient,thanks to 802.1Q trunks
E. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the
same network infrastructure.
F. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains,thus reducing
their size.
G. VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups,because the vlans all belong to
the same broadcast domain.

Answer: C E F
Question 2
VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access vlan 3
command interface configuration mode?
A. The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat.
B. The command is rejected.
C. The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually.
D. The port turns amber.

Answer: A
Question 3
What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three)
A. VLANs establish broadcast domains in switched networks.
B. VLANs utilize packet filtering to enhance network security.
C. VLANs provide a method of conserving IP addresses in large networks.
D. VLANs provide a low-latency internetworking alternative to routed networks.

E. VLANs allow access to network services based on department, not physical location.
F. VLANs can greatly simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network.

Answer: A E F
Question 4

On corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other, but they are
unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication
between the VLANs?
A. a router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch
B. a router with an IP address on the physical interface connected to the switch
C. a switch with an access link that is configured between the switches
D. a switch with a trunk link that is configured between the switches

Answer: A
Question 5
Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection between them using ports Fa0/13. An
802.1Q trunk is configured between the two switches. On CAT1, VLAN 10 is chosen as native, but
on CAT2 the native VLAN is not specified. What will happen in this scenario?
A. 802.1Q giants frames could saturate the link.
B. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send untagged frames.
C. A native VLAN mismatch error message will appear.
D. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send tagged frames.

Answer: C
Question 6
Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three)

A. They increase the size of collision domains.
B. They allow logical grouping of users by function.
C. They can enhance network security.
D. They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision domains.
E. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast
domains.
F. They simplify switch administration.

Answer: B C E
Question 7

A frame from VLAN1 of switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame received on VLAN2. What
causes this behavior?

broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different vlan. allowing only vlan 2 on the destination. contains collisions Answer: A C Question 10 . added security B. unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same vlan. provides segmentation D.A. D. the vlan id can be determined from the source MAC address table. native vlan mismatches D. when a packet is received from an 802. C. ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that vlans can span across the ports. Answer: C Question 8 Which statement about vlan operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true? A. trunk mode mismatches B. Answer: B Question 9 Which two benefits are provided by creating VLANs? (Choose two) A. dedicated bandwidth C. allows switches to route traffic between subinterfaces E. vlans that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet C. B.1Q trunk.

2 through 1005 Answer: A . 1 through 1002 D.Assuming the default switch configuration which vlan range can be added modified and removed on a Cisco switch? A. 2 through 1001 B. 1 through 1001 C.

Port FastEthernet 0/1 needs to be configured as an access link on both switches. C.com/new-ccna-trunking-questions Question 1 Refer to the topology and router output shown in the exhibit: A technician is troubleshooting host connectivity issues on the switches. The Fa0/1 port is not operational on one of the switches. The port-to-VLAN assignments are identical on the two switches.9tut. D.CCNA – Trunking Questions http://www. Answer: B Question 2 . A router is required for hosts on Sw11 in VLANs 10 and 15 to communicate with hosts in the same VLAN on Sw12. E. B. The Link connecting the switches has not been configured as a trunk. What could be the problem? A. At lease one port needs to be configured in VLAN 1 for VLANs 10 and 15 to be able to communicate. Hosts in the Admin VLAN are able to communicate. The hosts in VLANs 10 and 15 on Sw11 are unable to communicate with hosts in the same VLANs on Sw12.

on D. the operation of VTP B. auto C. a method of VLAN trunking C.In a switched environment. the process for root bridge selection E. VLAN pruning Answer: B Question 3 As a network technician. transparent B. forwarding Answer: B C D Question 4 Refer to the exhibit: .1Q standard describe? A. do you know which are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (Choose three) A. desirable E. an approach to wireless LAN communication D. blocking F. what does the IEEE 802.

The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk. 802.All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs. Based on the output shown. 802.1Q D. B. E. 802. Switch IP addresses must be configured in order for traffic to be forwarded between the switches.3ad B. The access link needs to be configured in multiple VLANs.1d . Answer: C Question 5 Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of successful DTP completion in a switch over FastEthernet? A. D. what is the most likely problem? A. 802. VTP is not configured to carry VLAN information between the switches.1w C. The link between the switches is configured in the wrong VLAN C. but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA can communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB.

0 . 802. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router rip C-router(config-router)# network 172. E. 802.19. C. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway.3.Answer: C Question 6 Which three of these statements regarding 802. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router ospf 1 C-router(config-router)# network 172. No further routing configuration is required.0 B.0. point-to-point connectivity.255 area 0 D. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends. C. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex.0. Answer: A C E Question 7 Refer to the exhibit: C-router is to be used as a ―router-on-a-stick‖ to route between the VLANs.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default. What can be said about this configuration? A. D.0.0 0. B. 802.19.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three) A.19. 802.0. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router eigrp 123 C-router(config-router)# network 172.

1 255.168. Router(config)#interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)#no shutdown Router(config)#interface fastethernet 0/0.168.10.0 Router(config-router)#network 192.1 255. Switch1(config)# vlan database Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server E.1 255.0 D.168.Answer: B Question 8 Refer to the exhibit: What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two) A.168.0 Router(config-subif)#interface fastethernet 0/0.1.20. Router (config)#router eigrp 100 Router(config-router)#network 192.2 Router(config-subif)#encapsulation dot1q 20 Router(config-subif)#ip address 192.10.255.20.0 C.255.168.0 Router(config-if)#no shut down B.255.1 Router(config-subif)#encapsulation dot1q 10 Router(config-subif)#ip address 192.255.255.255. Switch1(config) # interface fastEthernet 0/1 Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk . Router(config)#interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)#ip address 192.

client F. It is used exclusively for tagging vlan frames and does not address network reconvergence following switched network topology changes. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1 Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192. D. It is a layer 2 messaging protocol which maintains vlan configurations across network.3 frame header and thus requires that the FCS be recomputed. It is a trunking protocol capable of earring untagged frames.1.168. forwarding Answer: B C D .1 Answer: B E Question 9 Which two of these are characteristics of the 802. C. E. transparent B. auto C. It modifies the 802. on D. It includes an 8-bit field which specifies the priority of a frame.1Q protocol? (Choose two) A. B. desirable E. Answer: D E Question 10 What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three) A.F.

ISL E. It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk. subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match vlan tags D.CCNA – Trunking Questions 2 http://www. one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface B.com/new-ccna-trunking-questions-2 Question 1 What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a trunk port? A. one subinterface per vlan Answer: A C F Question 3 Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link? (Choose two) A. Answer: A Question 2 Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for vlan trunking? (Choose three) A. a management domain for each subinterface G E. subinterface numbering that matches vlan tages C. 802.1q C.9tut. one physical interface for each subinterface F. It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic. It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic. B. It creates a VLAN 999 interface. D. IGP D. VTP B. C.3u Answer: B D Question 4 . 802.

Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a Cisco switch?
(choose two)
A. show interfaces trunk
B. show interfaces switchport
C. show ip interface brief
D. show interfaces vlan

Answer: A B
Question 5
Refer to the exhibit:

How should the FastEthernet0/1 port on the 2950 model switches that are shown in the exhibit be
configured to allow connectivity between all devices?
A. The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.
B. SwitchX (config)#interface FastEthernet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
C. SwitchX (config)#interface FastEthernet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)#switchport mode access
SwitchX(config-if)#switchport access vlan 1
D. SwitchX (config)#interface FastEthernet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
SwitchX(config-if)#switchport trunk vlan 1
SwitchX(config-if)#switchport trunk vlan 10
SwitchX(config-if)#switchport trunk vlan 20

Answer: B

CCNA – EtherChannel
http://www.9tut.com/new-ccna-etherchannel

Question 1
Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. The SW1
configuration is shown. What is the correct configuration for SW2?
A. interface FastEthernet 0/1
channel-group 1 mode active
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
!
interface FastEthernet 0/2
channel-group 1 mode active
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
B. interface FastEthernet 0/1
channel-group 2 mode auto
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
!
interface FastEthernet 0/2
channel-group 2 mode auto
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
C. interface FastEthernet 0/1
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

switchport mode trunk
!
interface FastEthernet 0/2
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
D. interface FastEthernet 0/1
channel-group 1 mode passive
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
!
interface FastEthernet 0/2
channel-group 1 mode passive
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk

Answer: C
Question 2
Refer to the exhibit.

SW1‘s Fa0/1 interface is administratively shut down. D. Answer: D Question 3 A network administrator creates a layer 3 EtherChannel.If the devices produced the given output. bundling four interfaces into channel group 1. On what interface is the IP address configured? . what is the cause of the EtherChannel problem? A. B. C. There is an encapsulation mismatch between SW1‘s Fa0/1 and SW2‘s Fa0/1 interfaces. There is an MTU mismatch between SW1‘s Fa0/1 and SW2‘s Fa0/1 interfaces. There is a speed mismatch between SW1‘s Fa0/1 and SW2‘s Fa0/1 interfaces.

interface FastEthernet 0/3 channel-group 2 mode passive switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk C. all member interfaces D. the port-channel 1 interface B. speed B.A. trunk encapsulation D. duplex Answer: B Question 5 Refer to the exhibit. the highest number member interface C. interface FastEthernet 0/3 channel-group 1 mode desirable switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk B. What set of commands was configured on interface Fa0/3 to produce the given output? A. the lowest number member interface Answer: A Question 4 What parameter can be different on ports within an EtherChannel? A. DTP negotiation settings C. interface FastEthernet 0/3 channel-group 2 mode active switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk .

D. interface FastEthernet 0/3 channel-group 2 mode on switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk Answer: B .

E. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D. C.com/new-ccna-intervlan-questions Question 1 Refer to the exhibit: Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two) A.CCNA – InterVLAN Questions http://www. Routed and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces. B. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type. F. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit. D. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address. Answer: D F .9tut.

Switch B – Fa0/0 D. Switch B – Fa0/1 E. Switch A – Fa0/0 B.CCNA – STP http://www.com/new-ccna-stp Question 1 Refer to the topology shown in the exhibit. C. highest port priority number. E. Switch A – Fa0/1 C. lowest port MAC address B. Switch C – Fa0/0 F. VTP revision number D. port priority number and MAC address. Switch C – Fa0/1 Answer: B C D Question 2 What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each non-root switch in a spanning-tree topology? A. Which ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same bandwidth? (Choose three) A. path cost Answer: E .9tut.

B. C. .1q D. in an improperly implemented redundant topology C. during high traffic periods E. when a dual ring topology is in use Answer: B Question 6 Refer to the exhibit. STP E. PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per vlan.Question 3 What is one benefit of PVST+? A. PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location. PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops. SAP Answer: A D Question 5 In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in a switched LAN? A. when upper-layer protocols require high reliability D. to provide optimization. VTP C. 802. PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network. after broken links are re-established B.1d B. Answer: C Question 4 Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to prevent loops in a layer 2 network? (Choose two) A. 802. D.

The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower. listening C. forwarding Answer: C Question 8 Refer to the exhibit. What would be an effect of this cable being disconnected? A. Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled. which switch will be elected root bridge and why? .A problem with network connectivity has been observed. C. Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected. D. learning B. For less than a minute. Then normal network function would resume. discarding D. Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. It is suspected that the cable connected to switch port Fa0/9 on Switch1 is disconnected. Answer: D Question 7 Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST? A. B. Based on the information given.

Switch C. redundant B. because it has the highest priority Answer: E Question 9 Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or forwarding state? A. Switch A. Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950. converged Answer: D Question 10 Refer to the exhibit. because it is the most centrally located switch E. because it has the lowest MAC address B. because it has the lowest priority F.A. Switch C. Switch D. provisioned D. because it is the most centrally located switch C. because it has the highest MAC address D. Switch A. Switch B. spanned C. what is the most likely reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2? Switch# show spanning-tree interface fastethernet0/10 .

D. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology. Answer: C . This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree. C. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.A. B.

the switch with the highest MAC address B. Switching loops. the switch with the highest IP address D. the switch with the lowest MAC address C. split horizon D. hold down timers B. Switching loops.CCNA – STP 2 http://www. split horizon C. routing loops.9tut. STP Answer: F . VTP E. Switching loops. the switch with the lowest IP address Answer: B Question 2 Based on the network shown in the graphic Which option contains both the potential networking problem and the protocol or setting that should be used to prevent the problem? A. Assuming the default switch configuration. STP F. routing loops. which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1? A.com/new-ccna-stp-2 Question 1 Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. routing loops.

Switch4 Answer: C . Switch2 C. Switch1 B. Switch3 D. Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers? A.Question 3 Refer to the exhibit.

It has more than one internee that is connected to the root network segment. Answer: A B D Question 2 Refer to the exhibit: Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1? A.CCNA – RSTP http://www. B. or forwarding. discarding.9tut. learning. F. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802. C.1d spanning tree. RSTP port states are blocking. E. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence. D. . RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does. B.com/new-ccna-rstp Question 1 Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three) A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconvening time after a link failure.

It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge. Which statement is true? A. The MAC address of the root bridge is 0017.C. because not all of the interface roles are designated.1580. VLAN 20 is running the Per VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol. spanning-tree uplinkfast C. C. spanning-tree backbonefast D. The Fa0/11 role confirms that SwitchA is the root bridge for VLAN 20. SwitchA is not the root bridge.596d. spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst B. D. B. . spanning-tree mode mst Answer: A Question 4 Refer to the exhibit. Answer: D Question 3 Which command enables RSTP on a switch? A. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge. D.

Answer: D Question 5 Refer to the exhibit. F. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree. E. The output that is shown is generated at a switch. blocking B. D. disabled D. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch. B. Which three of these statements are true? (Choose three) A. All ports will be in a state of discarding. forwarding E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media. Answer: A C E Question 6 Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (choose two) A. C. learning or forwarding. listening Answer: A D . The switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch. learning C.

designated B. Fa0/2.1D STP. C. root Answer: A B F Question 9 . RSTP cannot operate with PVST+. SwitchC. SwitchD. root C. root F. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802. SwitchA. RSTP defines new port roles.1D STP. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three) A. designated E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802. Gi0/2. D.Question 7 Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two) A. Gi0/1. SwitchB. Fa0/1. Fa0/2. B. Answer: B E Question 8 Refer to the exhibit. SwitchB. No other configuration changes have been made. root D. RSTP defines no new port states. Gi0/2. E. SwitchA. as well as being configured to run RSTP. Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname.

Switch3. port fa0/1 B. Switch3. Switch3. Switch4. port fa0/11 D. port fa0/12 C. Switch4. port fa0/2 E. which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role? A. At the end of an RSTP election process.Refer to the exhibit. port Gi0/1 Answer: C .

0.0.0 only.144/20 Broadcast address is 255.9tut. and 192.146.1.147.149.0. line protocol is up Internet address is 192. ACL 102 access-list 102 deny tcp 172. Which two ACL statements.1 0.1.255.168.0.255.149.168. to allow traffic from hosts on networks 192.CCNA – Access list Questions http://www. would you use to accomplish this task? (Choose two) A.0.255 any eq 80 access-list 102 deny ip any any RouterA#show ip int FastEthernet0/0 is up.168.168.255 E.168.255.0 Answer: A C Question 3 Refer to the exhibit.255 F.0 0. 192.168.1.0.168.0.0.1.146. when combined.146.148.com/new-ccna-access-list-questions Question 1 Which item represents the standard IP ACL? A.0 0.0. 192.255 D.255.255.255 Address determined by DHCP MTU is 1500 bytes .1 eq 22 D.0.168. access-list 50 deny 192.146. access-list 2500 deny tcp any host 192.255. access-list 10 permit ip 192.255 B.255 B.1 Answer: A Question 2 A network administrator is configuring ACLs on a Cisco router.168.0 0. access-list 110 permit ip any any C. access-list 10 permit ip 192.1 0.0.0.168.147.0 0.168. access-list 10 permit ip 192.0.0 255.255 C. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.168.1.21.148. access-list 10 permit ip 192.1.168.1. access-list 101 deny tcp any host 192. access-list 10 permit ip 192.0 0.

But as is.0 D. permit any B. deny 172.0. permit 172. the ACL does not restrict anyone from the network. and D of ACL 10 have been entered in the shown order and applied to interface E0 inbound.1.21.0.0. Which interface command immediately removes the effect of ACL 102? A. no ip access-group 102 in D.1. destination address and subnet mask C.1.128 0.0.21. C. no ip access-class 102 out C. How can the ACL statements be re-arranged so that the system works as intended? . no ip access-group 102 out E. source address and wildcard mask Answer: D Question 5 Refer to the exhibit. B.0. permit 172.1. no ip access-class 102 in B. source address and subnet mask D. ACL 10 Statements are written in this order: A.142 0.21. to prevent all hosts (except those whose addresses are the first and last IP of subnet 172.15 C.128/28) from accessing the network.Helper address is not set Directed broadcast forwarding is enabled Outgoing access list is 102 Inbound access list is not set Proxy ARP is enabled An attempt to deny web access to a subnet blocks all traffic from the subnet. no ip access-list 102 in Answer: D Question 4 On which options are standard access lists based? A.21.0.129 0.0 Statements A. destination address and wildcard mask B.

you can configure one access list. per direction. you can apply only one access list on any interface B. you can place as many access lists as you want on any interface D. ACDB B. dynamic Answer: D . Which ACL can be used? A. you can configure one access list. BADC C. per direction. extended C. per layer 2 protocol Answer: B Question 7 A network engineer wants to allow a temporary entry for a remote user with a specific username and password so that the user can access the entire network over the internet. DBAC D. CDBA Answer: D Question 6 Which statement about access lists that are applied to an interface is true? A. reflexive B.A. standard D. per layer 3 protocol C.

255.0 C.com/new-ccna-subnetting Question 1 Refer to the exhibit.48/26 B.255.3.0 B.254.255. 255. 255.255.128/25 .0 Answer: B Question 2 Refer to the exhibit. Network A – 172.0 D.252. 255.16.16.255. Which network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two) A.9tut. 255. All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command.248.CCNA – Subnetting http://www.3. Network A – 172. Which subnet mask will place all hosts on Network B in the same subnet with the least amount of wasted addresses? A.

255.20.192/26 D.255. 255.255. 0.0 255.3.255. 192.255. with each LAN containing 5 to 26 hosts? A.168.252.255.252 C.16.24/29.16.3.3.255. 255.20.224 E.9 .0/30 E.16.252.255. 255.255. Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties box for the sales server? A. 192.252 Answer: B Question 4 Which subnet mask would be appropriate for a network address range to be subnetted for up to eight LANs.252 B.0.0 D. Network A – 172.168.168.255.8 255.255.252 D.16.255.255.8 255.255.16 255. the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is given the last usable host address. Link A – 172.240 E. 192.168.14 Subnet Mask: 255. IP address: 192.252.3. Which network address and subnet mask meet this requirement? A.252.255. 192. 192. Link A – 172.248 Default Gateway: 192.0.252.168.255.C.40/30 F.20.112/30 Answer: B D Question 3 You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on the same network while providing the maximum number of subnets.248 C.168.255.168.168.255.240 B.255.240 Answer: D Question 5 An administrator must assign static IP addresses to the servers in a network. 255.16 255.255. For network 192. Link A – 172.

20.32.240 Default Gateway: 192.20.25 D.255.240 Default Gateway: 192.255.168.20. In this VLSM addressing scheme.0.255.248 Default Gateway: 192.255. IP address: 192.0/16 . 172. IP address: 192. 172.255. what summary address would be sent from router A? A.20.0. 172.B.20.64.0/24 D.1 C.20.254 Subnet Mask: 255.25 Answer: C Question 6 Refer to the exhibit.0/16 B.168.16.0.30 Subnet Mask: 255. 172.255.0. IP address: 192.32.16.20.0/17 F.168.0.168. IP address: 192.168.255.0.30 Subnet Mask: 255.0/16 E.255.17 E. 172.168.20.0 Default Gateway: 192.0/20 C.168.30 Subnet Mask: 255.16.168. 172.

252 Answer: D Question 10 .252 E.0/25 Answer: A Question 8 Which two benefits are provided by using a hierarchical addressing network addressing scheme? (Choose two) A.188.0/23.255.255. reduces routing table entries B. 10.255.10.0/26 C. ease of management and troubleshooting Answer: A E Question 9 The network administrator is asked to configure 113 point-to-point links. 10.0/28 E. efficient utilization of MAC addresses D. 10.255.255.188.10.Answer: A Question 7 You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range 10. 10.255. 10.252 B.31.Which IP address range meets these requirements? A.255. auto-negotiation of media rates C. 10.31.0/27 B.0/25 subnetted with mask 255.0/18 subnetted with mask 255. Which IP addressing scheme best defines the address range and subnet mask that meet the requirement and waste the fewest subnet and host addresses? A.0. 10. dedicated communications between devices E. You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of subnets with as many as 30 hosts each.10. 10.188.0.0/23 subnetted with mask 255.10.31.188.188.10.188.0/24 subnetted with mask 255.252 D.0.31.0.0/29 D.0/16 subnetted with mask 255.0. 10.252 C.31.255.255.31. 10.255.

0.28.24. what is the correct network address? A.240.16.16.Given an IP address 172.0.0 Answer: A . 172.16.16.252 with a subnet mask of 255.0 D.0 C.0 B. 172. 172. 172.16.28.255.16.

A new subnet with 60 hosts has been added to the network.1.1. 192.com/new-ccna-subnetting-2 Question 1 Refer to the exhibit.1.64/27 D.64/26 C.168. 192.168.56/26 Answer: B Question 2 Refer to the exhibit.56/27 B. 192. 192. The Administrator would like to reduce the size of the routing table to the Central Router.9tut. Which partial routing table entry in the Central router represents a route summary that represents the LANs in Phoenix but no additional subnets? . The Lakeside Company has the internetwork in the exhibit. Which subnet address should this network use to provide enough usable addresses while wasting the fewest addresses? A.168.CCNA – Subnetting 2 http://www.168.1.

0.0.2. 10. serial 0/1 C. 10.0. 1 subnet D 10.0. 10.A.0.2. 1 subnet D 10.0 /22 is subnetted.0 [90/20514560] via 10. 10.2.0 [90/20514560] via 10.4.0. 1 subnet D 10. serial 0/1 E.0.2.0 [90/20514560] via 10.0 /28 is subnetted.0 /30 is subnetted.0. 10.2 6w0d. 1 subnet D 10.2 6w0d.0.2 6w0d.0.2 6w0d.0.0. 1 subnet D 10. 1 subnet D 10.0. serial 0/1 D.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10. 10.0.2.4.2.0.0.4 [90/20514560] via 10. What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes? .2. serial 0/1 B.4.2 6w0d.4.0 /28 is subnetted. serial 0/1 Answer: D Question 3 Refer to the exhibit.0.0.0 /22 is subnetted.0.2 6w0d.2.4.0.0 /30 is subnetted.0. serial 0/1 F.

0/23 D.0/21 B.0. The company needs a minimum of 300 sub-networks and a maximum of 50 host addresses per subnet.0.16.255. 172.0. 10.224 E. 255.255.252.255. 10. 255.0/18 B.255.0.0/24 Answer: B Question 4 A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing scheme to support a nationwide network.16.0. 255. 172.0. Working with only one Class B address.255.255. which of the following subnet masks will support an appropriate addressing scheme? (Choose two) A. 255.0.192 F.255.16.255. 172.255.0 D.248. 255.0 B. 172.0/21 .0.A. 255.0/16 C. 10.128 C.0.0/20 D.16.0. 10.255.0.0 Answer: B E Question 5 Which address range efficiently summarizes the routing table of the addresses for router main? A.0.0/22 C.

Which statements describe the addressing scheme that is in use in the network? (Choose three) A. The LAN interface of the router is configured with multiple IP addresses. 30 F. 16 E.1. All hosts have connectivity with one another. B.128. 14 D. RIP version 1 is the only routing protocol in use on the network and subnet 0 is not being used.192. C. The subnet mask in use is 255.Answer: C Question 6 Refer to the diagram. 32 Answer: E .16.16.205 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1 E.255. 6 B. F.1. The subnet mask in use is 255.25 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1 D. 8 C.255. What is the maximum number of usable IP addresses that can be supported on each LAN if the organization is using one class C address block? A. The IP address 172. The LAN interface of the router is configured with one IP address. Answer: B C F Question 7 The network administrator needs to address seven LANs.255.255. The IP address 172.

168.0/24 172.128/25 172.1.25.0/21 C.0/24 is directly connected.168.1.25.168.7.168.6. 172. 00:06:45.1.28 [90/8127323] via 192.1.0/24 172.1.4/30 is directly connected. 00:00:50.5.0.1.15.0/25 172.15.25.0/30 is subnetted.15.16 [90/1823638] via 192.0/24 172.0/22 B. 172. 00:05:23.25. Serial0/1 D 192.15.5. 4 subnets D 192.4.168.0/24 Answer: C Question 9 Gateway of last resort is not set 192.0.25. Serial0/1 D 192.1.1.1.6.5.Question 8 Refer to the exhibit.24 [90/3837233] via 192.15.20 [90/2681856] via 192.4.1.0/24 172.4.1. What is the most efficient summarization that R1 can use to advertise its networks to R2? A. FastEthernet0/0 .5.168. 172.168.4.0/24 172. 00:00:10.2.0/24 E.5. Serial0/1 D 192.168.5.0/22 D.168. 172. Serial0/1 C 192.1. 172. Serial0/1 C 192.168.168.7.

255.240 Answer: E .0 255. 192.168.16 255. 192.168.25. 192.240 B.25.255.168.255.168.Which address and mask combination a summary of the routes learned by EIGRP? A.25.25.16 255.28 255.255.255.25.255.0 255.255. 192.240 F.168.168.255. 192. 192.255.255.240 E.252 C.28 255.25.252 D.255.255.

com/new-ccna-ip-routing-questions Question 1 A router receives information about network 192.168. the MAC address of router interface e1 C. a directly connected interface with an address of 192.168. the MAC address of host A . the MAC address of router interface e0 B.168. What will be the source MAC address of the frames received by Host A from the server? A.0/24 from multiple sources.10.CCNA – IP Routing Questions http://www.9tut.10. the MAC address of the server network interface D.0/16 B.1 Answer: E Question 2 Refer to the graphic.254/24 F. a default route with a next hop address of 192.168. Host A is communicating with the server.10. a static router to network 192.168.0.168.10. an OSPF update for network 192. a RIP update for network 192.0/24 with a local serial interface configured as the next hop D.10.0/24 C. What will the router consider the most reliable information about the path to that network? A. a static router to network 192.10.168.0/24 E.

Answer: A Question 3 A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. Host A pings interface S0/0 on router 3. D. Use a hub to connect the four vlans with a FastEthernet interface on router. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance? A. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. all three routes E. B. the OSPF route B. How can you accomplish this task. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table? A. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration. Add two more FastEthernet interfaces. the EIGRP route C. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Answer: D Question 5 Refer to the exhibit. what is the TTL value for that ping? . C. the RIPv2 route D. Add a second router to handle the vlan traffic. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes Answer: B Question 4 A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four vlans in the local network.

2.0 172. ip default-gateway 0.0.0. ip route 0. 254 Answer: A Question 6 If IP routing is enabled.16.0 0.0.0.1 Answer: C E Question 7 Refer to the exhibit.0. ip route 172.0. A network administrator attempts to ping Host2 from Host1 and receives the results that are shown.0 D. 253 B. What is a possible problem? .0 172. which two commands set the gateway of last resort to the default gateway? (Choose two) A.0. ip default-network 0.0. 252 C. 255 D.0.0 B.0.0.0 C.A. ip default-route 0.0.0 0.0.2.1 0.1 E.16.0 0.2.0.0.16.0.

TCP/IP is not functioning on Host1 C. Which two options provide adequate routing table information for traffic that passes between the two routers and satisfy the requests of the network administrator? (choose two) A. B. Answer: C Question 8 Refer to the exhibit. . Interface Fa0/0 on Router1 is shutdown. B.A. a dynamic routing protocol on InternetRouter to advertise summarized routers to CentralRouter. D. The network administrator requires easy configuration options and minimal routing protocol traffic. The link between Host1 and Switch1 is down. The link between Router1 and Router2 is down. E. The link between Switch1 and Router1 is down. F. a dynamic routing protocol on CentralRouter to advertise summarized routers to InternetRouter. The default gateway on Host1 is incorrect.

6.0 10.255 10.255 fa0/0 B. HFD (config) #ip route 10.5. HFD(config)# ip route 10.6 0.6. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5. HFD(config)# ip route 10.0.0 Answer: C D .4. a static.4.255 10.4.255. a static route on InternetRouter to direct traffic that is destined for 172.255.6.0 fa0/0 D.0 0.255.0. D. HFD(config)# ip route 10. HFD(config)# ip route 10.0 F.0/24 network is to be configured on the HFD router.5.0.0.6 E. Answer: C F Question 9 Refer to the graphic.0 255.6 255.5.C.0.4.6.16.5. A static route to the 10.0.0 10.255.5.6. E. a dynamic routing protocol on InternetRouter to advertise all routes to CentralRouter.255.255. default route on CentralRouter that directs traffic to InternetRouter.5.0 0.0/16 to CentralRouter.6 C.0 255.6.5.5. a dynamic routing protocol on CentralRouer to advertise all routes to InternetRouter F. Which commands will accomplish this? (Choose two) A.0.6.5.5.

The network administrator connected to router Coffee via the console port. Answer: C Question 2 The speed of all serial links is E1 and the speed of the all other links is 100Mb/s. The routing table on Coffee has not updated.CCNA – IP Routing 2 http://www. E. C.0 network.17. The network has not fully converged.5.22. D.31. A static route will be established on the Manchester router to direct traffic toward to the internet over the most direct path available. B. Based on the output of the show ip route command and the topology shown in the graphic. The neighbor relationship table is not correctly updated.9tut. The FastEthernet interface on Coffee is disabled. What configuration of the Manchester router will establish a route toward to the internet for traffic from workstation on the Manchester LAN? .0 network cannot reach the server located on the 172.com/new-ccna-ip-routing-2 Question 1 Users on the 172. F. issued the show ip route command. A static route is configured incorrectly. IP routing is not enabled. what is the cause of the failure? A.

0 255. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing tables.0.16.0 172.1 E.0 128.2 Answer: F Question 3 Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (choose two) A.0 172. E.255 172.100. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.0 255.0. B.0.0.255.0. Answer: A E Question 4 .0. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.255.0:0:0 172. ip route 0. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.107. ip route 0.0.2 F.255.1.16.0.A.0.100. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.0.1 C.16. ip route 0.0. F.100. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables using automatic updates.255.1. ip route 0. G. D.100.252 128.16.1 D.0.255. C.0. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.107.2 B.0.0 0.0 0. ip route 0.00.0. ip route 0.0.0 255.255.

the MAC address of Host C E.1.64/28 e1 10. where will the router send a packet destined for 10.2 C.2.4 A.4.5.3.0/24 s1 directly connected 10.64/27 s1 10. the MAC address of Switch 1 C.0/24 e0 10.4.1.0/25 s0 directly connected 10.1.1. the IP address of Host C D.1.3 10. the IP address of Switch 1 B.2 10.3.Refer to the exhibit.4 Answer: C Question 5 Which destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two) A. 10.1.64/29 s0 10.1.5.2.1.1. the MAC address of the router‘s E0 interface .5.1. 10.2 B.1.1.2.3.1. According to the routing table.1.5.5.1.1.0/24 e0 directly connected 10.0/24 e1 directly connected 10.1.65? Network Interface Next-hop 10.1.4.1.2 10.3 D. 10. the IP address of the router‘s E0 interface F.1. 10.

link bandwidth B. The network administrator must establish a route by which London workstations can forward traffic to the Manchester workstations. B. Configure a static route on London to direct all traffic destined for 172. link cost . Configure a dynamic routing protocol on Manchester to advertise a default route to the London router.0. Answer: E Question 7 Which parameter can be tuned to affect the selection of a static route as a backup when a dynamic protocol is also being used? A. F. hop count C.1.1. E. C. Configure a static default route on London with a next hop of 10. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise summarized routes to Manchester. What is the simplest way to accomplish this? A.0/22 to 10. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise all routes to Manchester.2.1. D. Configure Manchester to advertise a static default route to London.1.1.16.Answer: C F Question 6 Refer to the exhibit.

administrative distance E. which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this transmission? A. . link delay Answer: D Question 8 Refer to the exhibit: After HostA pings HostB. B.D.

C. E. F. Answer: D . D.

show frame-relay pvc Answer: A Question 3 Refer to the exhibit. The PVC is configured correctly and is operating normally. show inter serial D.9tut. but there is a problem on the remote end of the PVC. E. Answer: D Question 2 Which command allows you to verify the encapsulation type (CISCO or IETF) for a frame relay link? A. is operating normally and is no longer actively seeking the address the remote route. is operating normally and is waiting for interesting to trigger a call to the remote router. What does this mean? A.but no data packets have been detected for more than five minutes.com/new-ccna-frame-relay Question 1 The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows ‖PVC STATUS=INACTIVE‖. The PVC is configured correctly. show frame-relay map B. The PVC is configured correctly on the local switch. C. show frame-relay lmi C. The PVC is configured correctly. Which statement describes DLCI 17? .CCNA – Frame Relay http://www. D. The PVC is not configured on the switch. B.

DLCI=100 B. It cannot be used on R3 or R1. The network administrator suspects that the link is overloaded. in DF packets 0 .A: DLCI 17 describes the ISDN circuit between R2 and R3. C: DLCI 17 is the Layer 2 address used by R2 to describe a PVC to R3. Based on the partial output of the Router#show frame relay pvc command shown in the graphic. B: DLCI 17 describes a PVC on R2. which output value indicates to the local router that traffic sent to the corporate site is experiencing congestion? A. D: DLCI 17 describes the dial-up circuit from R2 and R3 to the service provider. in BECN packets 192 D. Answer: C Question 4 Users have been complaining that their Frame Relay connection to the corporate site is very slow. last time PVC status changed 00:25:40 C. in FECN packets 147 E.

2 255. what is the most likely cause of the problem? A. incorrect IP address B. show frame-relay map D. D.100.255.16. incorrect bandwidth configuration . Based on this information.0. All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.1 100 broadcast As a technician.0. C. All traffic exceeding the CIR is marked discard eligible.0 encapsulation frame-relay frame-relay map ip 172. Both routers are running IOS version 12. All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible.Answer: C Question 5 What occurs on a Frame Relay network when the CIR is exceeded? A. show frame relay end-to-end Answer: C Question 7 Router 1# show running-config interface serial0/0 bandwidth 64 ip address 172. show frame-relay lmi C.16.100. you found the router1 is unable to reach the second router. Answer: D Question 6 What command is used to verify the DLCI destination address in a Frame Relay static configuration? A show frame-relay pvc B. B. All UDP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.

C. B. What is the meaning of the term dynamic as displayed in the output of the show frame-relay map command shown? A. The Serial0/0 interface is passing traffic. The DLCI 100 will be dynamically changed as required to adapt to changes in the Frame Relay cloud E. The DLCI 100 was dynamically allocated by the router C. incorrect LMI configuration Answer: C (In fact none is correct) Question 8 Refer to the exhibit.16.1 was learned through Inverse ARP Answer: E Question 9 Refer to the exhibit.3. The Serial0/0 interface acquired the IP address of 172.16. The mapping between DLCI 100 and the end station IP address 172. incorrect map statement D. Which WAN protocol is being used? .3.1 from a DHCP server D.

This command is required for all Frame Relay configurations. to be forwarded across the PVC.121.8 is the local router port used to forward data. ATM B. such as RIP updates. Which of the following statements is true concerning this command? A. 102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information. HDLC C. This command should be executed from the global configuration mode. The broadcast option allows packets. The IP address 10. C. PPP Answer: C Question 10 The command frame-relay map ip 10.121. D.16.A. E.8 102 broadcast was entered on the router.16. Answer: E . Frame Relay D. B.

10.168.11.3/24 B.1/24 DLCI 28 192.168.1/24 DLCI 99 192.12. D.168. They are ideal for full-mesh topologies.11.13.168.2/24 .10.1/24 DLCI 99 192.168.10.1/24 DLCI 17 192.1/24 C. which IP addresses whould be assigned to the interfaces with point-topoint PVCs? A. DLCI 16 192. They create split-horizon issues. E. They require a unique subnet within a routing domain.com/new-ccna-frame-relay-2 Question 1 What are two characteristics of Frame Relay point-to-point subinterfaces? (Choose two) A.2/24 DLCI 28 192. DLCI 16 192.168.1/24 DLCI 99 192.168.1 /24 DLCI 17 192.10.10.2/24 DLCI 28 192. They require the use of NBMA options when using OSPF. C.168. They emulate leased lines.168.168.168.10. B. DLCI 16 192.11.168.10.CCNA – Frame Relay 2 http://www.9tut. Answer: B C Question 2 In the Frame Relay network.1/24 DLCI 17 192.

configure static frame relay map entries for each subinterface network. B. The status of the PVC that is configured on the router Answer: D E Question 4 It has become necessary to configure an existing serial interface to accept a second Frame Relay virtual circuit.168. The number of BECN packets that are received by the router C. configure each subinterface with its own IP address E. create the virtual interfaces with the interface command D. disable split horizon to prevent routing loops between the subinterface networks F. Q933-A Annex A B. The number of FECN packets that are received by the router B.10.168.10.168.2/24 DLCI 99 192. HDLC .10. The ip address of the local router D.10. encapsulate the physical interface with multipoint PPP Answer: B C D Question 5 Which encapsulation type is a Frame Relay encapsulation type that is supported by Cisco routers? A.1/24 DLCI 17 192. DLCI 16 192. The value of the local DLCI E.4/24 Answer: C Question 3 What two statistics appear in show frame-relay map output? (Choose two) A.3/24 DLCI 28 192.D.168. Which of the following are required to solve this? (Choose three) A. remove the ip address from the physical interface C. IETF C. ANSI Annex D D.

2 IP address Answer: D .168. defines the destination IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DLCI 202 B.1.168.2 202 broadcast command? A. defines the DLCI that is used for all packets that are sent to the 192.2 IP address are received D. defines the DLCI on which packets from the 192.Answer: B Question 6 What is the result of issuing the frame-relay map ip 192.1.168.1. defines the source IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DLCI 202 C.

NAT conserves addresses through host MAC-level multiplexing. D. E. Answer: A B Question 2 What are two benefits of using NAT? (choose two) A.CCNA – NAT PAT Questions http://www. B. B. NAT accelerates the routing process because no modifications are made on the packets.com/new-ccna-nat-pat-questions Question 1 Which two statements about static NAT translations are true? (choose two) A. NAT protects network security because private networks are not advertised. They can be configured with access lists. to allow two or more connections to be initiated from the outside. What statement is true of the configuration for this network? . They allow connection to be initiated from the outside. They are always present in the NAT table. Answer: A E Question 3 Refer to the exhibit.9tut. Dynamic NAT facilitates connections from the outside of the network. D. F. NAT eliminates the need to re-address all host that require external access. NAT facilitates end-to-end communication when IPsec is enable. They require no inside or outside interface markings because addresses are statically defined. C. C.

D. the Serial0/0 interface address will not support the NAT configuration as shown. ExternalRouter must be configured with static routers to network 172. Because of the addressing on interface FastEthernet0/1.0/24 Answer: C .A. C. B.16. The configuration that is shown provides inadequate outside address space for translation of the number of inside addresses that are supported. The number 1 referred to in the ip nat inside source command references access-list number 1.2.

It is used to route between autonomous systems.0 area 0 A. The OSPF area is configured improperly. C. B.9tut.com/new-ccna-ospf-questions Question 1 Which characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three) A. . It is simpler to configure than RIPv2. E. what configuration error is causing this problem? Router(config)# router ospf 1 Router(config-router)# network 10. utilizes frequent periodic updates Answer: A C D Question 2 Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three) A. The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.0. The process id is configured improperly.0 255. provides common view of entire topology B. The networks attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers.0. exchanges routing tables with neighbors C. Answer: A C E Question 3 A network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network.0. C. B. D.0. It supports VLSM.CCNA – OSPF Questions http://www. Given the information in the partial configuration shown below. utilizes event-triggered updates E. The network number is configured improperly. calculates shortest path D. It allows extensive control of routing updates F. D. It confines network instability to one area of the network. It increases routing overhead on the network.

0. F.103 F.64 0.63 area 0 After completing the configuration. Serial0/1. Serial0/1. Serial0/0 D.102 E. the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. FastEthernet0/0 B.E.168. The network subnet mask is configured improperly. FastEthernet0/1 C. Serial0/1.104 Answer: B C D Question 5 What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing of a Cisco OSPF router? A. Answer: C Question 4 A network associate has configured OSPF with the command: City(config-router)# network 192. 16 B.12. The AS is configured improperly.0. 2 . Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three) A.

Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes D.0 area 0 .16.C.168.255.168.255. Router(config-router)#network 192.0 0.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (choose two) A.16. B. Router(config)#router ospf 1 B.255 area 0 E.255 0 F.0. 4 Answer: D Question 6 Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two) Router(config)# router ospf 1 A.0 0.0. Router(config-router)#network 192.168. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth F.16. C. Router(config)#router ospf area 0 D. to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches E. to confine network instability to single areas of the network. unlimited D. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID. Answer: C D Question 7 Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three) A. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65.535. Router(config)#router ospf 0 C. to reduce the complexity of router configuration C. E. Router(config-router)#network 192.0. Only one process number can be used on the same router.0 255. to reduce routing overhead Answer: A C F Question 8 Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.16. B. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.168.0. to speed up convergence D.

16. what router ID will OSPF use for this RouterD? RouterD# show ip interface brief A.5.Answer: A D Question 9 Refer to the exhibit.5. if the router ID has not been manually set. 100 C.2 B.1.1 D. Given the output for this command.1 C. 120 B. 90 D.168. 172. 10.1.154. 110 Answer: D .154. 10. 192.316 Answer: C Question 10 What is the default administrative distance of OSPF? A.

9tut. Bandwidth. The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2.com/new-ccna-ospf-questions-2 Question 1 Why R1 can‘t establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3 according to the following graphic? (Choose two) A – Configure EIGRP on these routers with a lower administrative distance B – All routers should be configured for backbone Area 1 C – R1 and R3 have been configured in different areas D – The hello and dead interval timers are not configured the same values on R1 and R3 Answer: C D Question 2 Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers? A. Bandwidth. Delay and Load Answer: B Question 3 A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. Bandwidth C. Reliability. what is the cause of this problem? . Delay and MTU B. Based on the information in the graphic. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. Bandwidth and MTU D. MTU.CCNA – OSPF Questions 2 http://www.

C. Answer: D Question 4 What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two) A. show ip ospf database . The OSPF process ID numbers must match. B. show ip ospf link-state B. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network. LSAs from other routers D. TTL packets from designated routers Answer: A C Question 5 Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states? A. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly. The OSPF area is not configured properly. hello packets B. show ip ospf neighbors D. F. show ip ospf lsa database C. beacons received on point-to-point links E. The priority on R1 should be set higher.A. SAP messages sent by other routers C. D. E. routing tables received from other link-state routers F. The cost on R1 should be set higher.

B. By default. The router automatically chooses the IP address of a loopback as the OSPF Router ID E. It should be the same on all routers in an OSPF routing instance C. The values of the dead timers on the routers are different. Highest IP address of the loopback is used C. It is created using the MAC Address of the loopback interface Answer: A D Question 9 . It identifies the source of Type 1 LSA B. router-id needs to be matched on ospf neighbors D. router-id is 16 bit Answer: A B Question 8 Which two statements about the OSPF Router ID are true? (Choose two) A. C.Answer: D Question 6 When running OSPF. The loopback addresses are on different subnets. The process identifier on router A is different than the process identifier on router Answer: B Question 7 Which is true about OSPF router-id? (Choose two) A. D. what would cause router A not to form an adjacency with router B? A. the lowest IP address on the router becomes the OSPF router ID D. It is used for type 1 router LSA B. Route summarization is enabled on both routers.

255. It increases LSA response times.0.255. C.255. It reduces the number of required OSPF neighbor adjacencies.0 0.0 area 0 C. when configured.0. It reduces the types of LSAs that are generated.0 area 0 D. network 0.255 area 0 B.0. network 255. B.0.What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network design? (Choose two) A. network 0.255 0.0. E. Answer: B C Question 10 What OSPF command. D.0. network all-interfaces area 0 Answer: A .0. It removes the need for virtual links.0 255.255. will include all interfaces into area 0? A. It is less CPU intensive for routers in the single area.0.

What command will display the required information? A. Based on the exhibited routing table.192/26 LAN be forwarded to 192.1? . Router#show ip eigrp interfaces D.9tut.CCNA – EIGRP Questions http://www. The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. how will packets from a host within the 192.10.168. Router# show ip eigrp topology C. Router#show ip eigrp neighbors Answer: D Question 2 Refer to the exhibit.com/new-ccna-eigrp-questions Question 1 A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency.10. Router# show ip eigrp adjacency B.168.

The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 B. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 C. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2 D. when running EIGRP what is required for R1 to exchange routing updates with R3? .A. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1 Answer: D Question 3 Refer to the exhibit.

a backup route. What path will packets take from a host on 192.10. a primary route.stored in the routing table C.stored in the topology table Answer: C Question 5 Refer to the exhibit.stored in the routing table B.192/26 network to a host on the LAN attached to router R1? . a primary route.stored in the topology table D.168. a backup route. The company uses EIGRP as the routing protocol.A – AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers B – Loopback interfaces must be configured so a DR is elected C – The no auto-summary command is needed on R1 and R3 D – R2 needs to have two network statements. one for each connected network Answer: A Question 4 Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor? A.

Serial0/1 C 192.168.10.168.10.9.10.128/26 [90/2195456] via 192. B. 00:03:31.168.10.168. Serial0/0 C 192.00:03:31. The path of the packets will be R3 to R1 to R2.168.8/30 is directly connected.10.64/26 [90/2195456] via 192. The path of the packets will be R3 to R2 to R1. The path of the packets will be R3 to R1 Answer: D .0/30 [90/2681856] via 192. C. 6 subnets.10.168.5. Serial0/0 D 192. The path of the packets will be both R3 to R2 to R1 and R3 to R1.192/26 is directly connected.10. Serial0/1 A. Serial0/0 C 192. FastEthernet0/0 D 192.10.R3# show ip route Gateway of last resort is not set 192 168.168.9.168.4/30 is directly connected.10.0/24 is variably subnetted.10.168. 00:03:31. 2 masks D 192. D.

designated IP address to the DHCP server Answer: A B Question 2 Which two tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform? (Choose two) A. Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is an IP address conflict? A. Only the IP detected by Gratuitous ARP is removed from the pool. Set the IP gateway to be used by the network. .CCNA – DHCP Questions http://www. IP address leased to the LAN D. which two IP addresses should never be assignable to hosts? (Choose two) A. C. C. network or subnetwork IP address B. F. E. Provide an easy management of layer 3 devices. Perform host discovery used DHCPDISCOVER message. Assign and renew IP address from the default pool. Configure IP address parameters from DHCP server to a host. D. manually assigned address to the clients F. IP address used by the interfaces E. Answer: C F Question 3 Refer to the exhibit. broadcast address on the network C. The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved. The address remains in the pool until the conflict is resolved. B. Monitor IP performance using the DHCP server.com/new-ccna-dhcp-questions Question 1 When a DHCP server is configured.9tut. B.

If an address conflict is detected. F. A DHCP server uses a gratuitous ARP to detect DHCP clients. Answer: D . the address is removed from the pool for an amount of time configurable by the administrator. Answer: C Question 5 Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP? A. Only the IP detected by Ping is removed from the pool. A DHCP client uses a gratuitous ARP to detect a DHCP server. D. the address is removed from the pool and will not be reused until the server is rebooted. C. The IP will be shown. and another address is then assigned. E. A host will usually keep the same address by periodically contacting the DHCP sever to renew the lease. Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time. B. even after the conflict is resolved.D. the address is removed from the pool and an administrator must resolve the conflict. Addresses are leased to host. Answer: A Question 4 How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP address to host? A. B. If an address conflict is detected. Addresses are permanently assigned so that the host uses the same address at all times. D. a new quest for an address must be made. A DHCP client uses a ping to detect address conflicts. If an address conflict is detected. At the end of period. C. E. Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine the length of the agreement.

F.1203 D. 0007.C007. enabling an administrative form of load balancing. It monitors traffic flow and link utilization. C. C.AC01 B.com/new-ccna-hsrp-vrrp-glbp Question 1 Which one of these is a valid HSRP Virtual Mac Address? A.CCNA – HSRP VRRP GLBP http://www. The HSRP virtual IP address must be the same as one of the router‘s interface addresses on the LAN. The virtual IP address and virtual MAC address are active on the HSRP Master router.0C07. E. The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval. HSRP supports only clear-text authentication.0110 C. The HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the routers‘ interfaces on the same LAN. 0000. 0000. 0000.9tut.5E00. D. It thwarts man-in-the-middle attacks. HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface. Answer: B Question 4 . It causes traffic to dynamically move to higher bandwidth links D. B.B400.0201 Answer: A Question 2 Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose three) A. Answer: A B F Question 3 Which statement describes VRRP object tracking? A. It ensures the best VRRP router is the virtual router master for the group. B.

The active virtual gateway will reply with one of four possible virtual MAC addresses. The GLBP member routers will reply with one of four possible burned in hardware addresses.In GLBP. who is responsible for the arp request? A. GLBP is an open source standardized protocol that can be used with multiple vendors. AVG C. GLBP elects two AVGs and two standby AVGs for redundancy. B. AVF B. The active virtual gateway will reply with its own hardware MAC address. E. B. F. Standby Router Answer: B Question 6 What are three benefits of GLBP? (Choose three) A. C. C. D. D. GLBP can load share traffic across a maximum of four routers. Active Router D. Answer: A Question 5 In a GLBP network. GLBP supports up to 1024 virtual routers. Answer: B D E . All GLBP member routers will reply in round-robin fashion. GLBP supports clear text and MD5 password authentication between GLBP group members. GLBP supports up to eight virtual forwarders per GLBP group. which router will respond to client ARP requests? A.

WCCP C. Netflow B. IP SLA D. SET Answer: A B Question 4 Which three features are added in SNMPv3 over SNMPv2? A. MIB B.9tut. Message Integrity B. GET D. SNMP Manager C.com/new-ccna-snmp-questions Question 1 Which three are the components of SNMP? (Choose three) A. SNMP Agent Answer: A B D Question 2 Which protocol can cause overload on a CPU of a managed device? A. Compression .CCNA – SNMP Questions http://www. SysLog Server D. INFORM C. SNMP Answer: D Question 3 What is the alert message generated by SNMP agents called ? A. TRAP B.

SNMPv3 added the GetBulk protocol messages to SNMP. D. SNMPv3 enhanced SNMPv2 security features B. SNMPv2 added the GetNext protocol message to SNMP. SNMPv2 added the GetBulk protocol message to SNMP. SNMPv3 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP. CBC-DES D. C. Authentication D. Answer: A C E Question 7 What authentication type is used by SNMPv2? A. SNMPv2 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP. HMAC-SHA C.C. Error Detection Answer: A C D Question 5 What is SNMPv3 authentication protocol? Answer: HMAC-MD5 or HMAC-SHA (Maybe either of them will appear in the exam) Question 6 Which three statements about the features of SNMPv2 and SNMPv3 are true? (Choose three) A. E. HMAC-MD5 B. Encryption E. F. community strings Answer: D .

Accounting/Billing Answer: A C D Question 2 What are the three things that the NetFlow uses to consider the traffic to be in a same flow? A. MAC address Answer: A C D Question 3 What NetFlow component can be applied to an interface to track IPv4 traffic? A. flow monitor B. flow sampler D. Security Analysis D.9tut. Interface name C. flow exporter Answer: A Question 4 What command visualizes the general NetFlow data on the command line? .CCNA – NetFlow Questions http://www. Application & User Monitoring B. Port numbers D.com/new-ccna-netflow-questions Question 1 What are the benefit of using Netflow? (Choose three) A. Network Planning C. IP address B. flow record C. Network. L3 protocol type E.

show mls netflow ip Answer: C Question 5 What are three reasons to collect NetFlow data on a company network? (Choose three) A. port availability E. show ip cache flow D. number of devices exporting Netflow data D. To identify applications causing congestion. CPU utilization B. D. To detect suboptimal routing in the network. bandwidth hogs. show ip flow export B. F. To authorize user network access.A. Answer: A D F Question 6 What are three factors a network administrator must consider before implementing Netflow in the network? (Choose three) A. To diagnose slow network performance. C. IP SLA . and bandwidth utilization. show mls sampling E. E. To confirm the appropriate amount of bandwidth that has been allocated to each Class of Service. To report and alert link up / down instances. where Netflow data will be sent C. SNMP version F. WAN encapsulation Answer: A B C Question 7 What Cisco IOS feature can be enabled to pinpoint an application that is causing slow network performance? A. B. show ip flow top-talkers C. SNMP B. Netflow C. WCCP D.

Answer: B .

A Syslog server provides the storage space necessary to store log files without using router disk space. Alerts C.9tut. Utilizing Syslog improves network performance. C. Errors D. The console terminal D. Emergencies B. There are more Syslog messages available within Cisco IOS than there are comparable SNMP trap messages. Critical Answer: A B C E Question 3 Which three statements about Syslog utilization are true? (Choose three) A. E. B. Other terminals E. A Syslog server helps in aggregation of logs and alerts. Warnings E. Syslog server Answer: B C E Question 2 Syslog was configured with a level 3 trap. Answer: C D F . The Syslog server automatically notifies the network administrator of network problems. Flash B. F. Enabling Syslog on a router automatically enables NTP for accurate time stamping. D. The logging buffer RAM C.com/new-ccna-syslog-questions Question 1 What are the popular destinations for Syslog messages to be saved? A. Which 3 types of logs would be generated (choose four) A.CCNA – Syslog Questions http://www.

Warning Answer: A C D E Question 7 A network administrator enters the following command on a router: logging trap 3. service timestamps debug datetime localtime D. What are three message types that will be sent to the Syslog server? (Choose three) A. local7 Answer: D Question 6 What levels will be trapped if the administrator executes the command router(config)# logging trap 4 A. Error E. service timestamps log datetime localtime B. emergency C. service timestamps log datetime msec Answer: B Question 5 What is the default Syslog facility level? A. local6 D. Emergency B. Alert D. local4 B. Notice C. informational B. warning .Question 4 What command instructs the device to timestamp Syslog debug messages in milliseconds? A. service timestamps debug datetime msec C. local5 C.

debug F. critical E.D. error Answer: B D F .

Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that address are received. BPDU Guard E. C. B. SW1# show running-config Answer: C D Question 3 Select the action that results from executing these commands: Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky A. E. . A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.9tut. Root Guard D. SW1# show port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12 D.com/new-ccna-security-questions Question 1 Which Cisco Catalyst feature automatically disables the port in an operational PortFast upon receipt of a BPDU? A. SW1# show switchport port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12 C. BPDU Filter Answer: D Question 2 Which two commands correctly verily whether port security has been configured on port FastEthernet 0/12 on a switch? (Choose two) A. BackboneFast B. UplinkFast C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database. SW1# show switchport port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12 B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.CCNA – Security Questions http://www. D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that address are received.

00aa. All frames arriving on 2950Switch with a destination of 0000. 2950Switch(config-if)#switchport port-security 2950Switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address sticky 2950Switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1 The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1.FFFF. will be forwarded out fa0/1. Hosts B and C may forward frames out fa0/1 but frames arriving from other switches will not be forwarded out fa0/1. the first learned MAC address of 2950Switch. What two functions will occur when this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two) A. The MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF. D. F. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1.bbbb.aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/1. B. The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch. Answer: B D Question 5 Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer? . Only frames from source 0000. E. This frame will be discarded when it is received by 2950Switch. C.00bb.FFFF.Answer: B Question 4 Refer to the exhibit.

A. If any other device is detected. . switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1 Answer: C Question 6 Refer to the exhibit. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1 B. A junior network administrator was given the task of configuring port security on SwitchA to allow only PC_A to access the switched network through port fa0/1. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1 D. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1 C. and then observes the output from these two show commands. the port is to drop frames from this device. The administrator configured the interface and tested it with successful pings from PC_A to RouterA.

Port security needs to be enabled on the interface. B. The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports B. D. E. D. . The port security configuration needs to be saved to NVRAM before it can become active. Port security interface counters need to be cleared before using the show command. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running configuration. F.Which two of these changes are necessary for SwitchA to meet the requirements? (Choose two) A. C. The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure mac addresses in the voice vlan. The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels. Port security needs to be configured to allow only one learned MAC address. Port security needs to be globally enabled. Which two statements are true? (Choose two) A. Answer: B D Question 7 A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. C. Port security needs to be configured to shut down the interface in the event of a violation.

E. Answer: C E Question 8 Which protocol is an open standard protocol framework that is commonly used in VPNs to provide secure end-to-end connections? A. the switch can learn new addresses up to the maximum defined. L2TP Answer: B . IPsec C. When dynamic mac address learning is enabled on an interface. PPTP B. RSA D.

0. With a network wide mask of 255. C. must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.255. each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet.128.255. E.255.128. each interface does not require an IP address. each interface does not require an IP address.255.0.255. With a network wide mask of 255.255. traced address B. Answer: B D E Question 3 . telnet address D. D.254. With a network wide mask of 255.CCNA – Operation Questions http://www.9tut. With a network wide mask of 255. ssh address Answer: B Question 2 Refer to the exhibit: Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three) A. B.0.255.255.com/new-ccna-operation-questions Question 1 Which command would you use on a Cisco router to verify the Layer 3 path to a host? A. traceroute address C. With a network wide mask of 255.255. must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.

to map a known DLCI to a MAC address E. Update the routing table based on updates from their neighbors. Send entire routing table to all routers in the routing domain. Answer: A D Question 5 What is the purpose of the inverse ARP? A. to map a known MAC address to an IP address Answer: A Question 6 The network shown in the diagram is experiencing connectivity problems. Use the shortest-path algorithm to the determine best path. Maintain the topology of the entire network in its database. to map known SPID to a MACaddress D.What are three reasons that an organization with multiple branch offices and roaming users might implement a Cisco VPN solution instead of point-to-point WAN links? (Choose three) A. B. reduced cost B. scalability F. Which of the following will correct the problems? (Choose two. to map a known DLCI to an IP address B. F. D. broadband incompatibility D. Send periodic updates regardless of topology changes. to map a known IP address to a MAC address C. E. C. to map a known IP address to a SPID. increased security E.) . better throughput C. reduced latency Answer: A D E Question 4 What two things will a router do when running a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two) A.

Answer: B D Question 7 Refer to the exhibit. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255. RELEASE SOFTWARE (fcl) Router1 uptime is 23 hours.129/hampton/nitro/c7200-j-mz‖ cisco 7206 (NPE150) processor with 57344K/8192K bytes of memory.2.255.254.3tl997091S:1647S2) [hampton-nitro-baseline 249] Copyright (c) 1986-1997 by cisco Systems.255. C.1(11855) [beta 2].2.255.1.1. Configure the gateway on Host A as 10. B.2.1.224. Experimental Version 11.A.240. Compiled Wed 08-0ct-97 06:39 by hampton Image text-base: 0×60008900.1. Configuration register is 0×2102 . Inc. INTERIM SOFTWARE BOOTPLASH: 7200 Software (C7200-BOOT-M). data-base: 0x60B98000 ROM: System Bootstrap.1. Configure the IP address of Host B as 10. Version 11.1.1. Configure the IP address of Host A as 10. D. Configure the gateway on Host B as 10. Version 11.16. F. 33 minutes System restarted by abort at PC 0x6022322C at 10:50:SS PDT Tue Oct 21 1997 System image file is ―tftp://112.2. E. For what two reasons has the router loaded its IOS image from the location that is shown? (Choose two) Router1> show version Cisco Internetwork Operating System Software IOS ™ 7200 Software (C7200-J-M).255.2. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.1(472).

D. Router C will use ICMP to inform Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached. C. F. Answer: A C Question 8 Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. Router1 has specific boot system command that instruct it to load IOS from TFTP server. Answer: A D Question 9 How is an EUI-64 format interface ID created from a 48-bit MAC address? A. The e0 interface on Router C is down. B. E. Cisco routers will first attempt to load a image from TFTP for management purposes. Router1 is acting as a TFTP server for other routers. Router1 defaulted to ROMMON mode and loaded the IOS image from a TFTP server. Router A. Which of the following are true? (Choose two) A. Router1 cannot locate a valid IOS image in flash memory. Router C will send a Source Quench message type. by inserting 0xFFFE between the upper three bytes and the lower three bytes of the MAC address E. C. by prefixing the MAC address with 0xFFEE.A. B. E. and Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached. B. Router C will send a Destination Unreachable message type. D. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reached. by appending 0xFF to the MAC address. Answer: D . C. by prefixing the MAC address with 0xF and inserting 0xF after each of its first three bytes. Router C will send a Router Selection message type. by prefixing the MAC address with 0xFF and appending 0xFF to it. D. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1.

1.1. host A IP address: 192.Question 10 Refer to the exhibit: A network administrator is adding two new hosts to SwitchA. host B IP address: 192.129 F.168.168.1.1. host B IP address: 192.1. host A IP address: 192.168. Which three values could be used for the configuration of these hosts? (Choose three) A. host B default gateway: 192. host A default gateway: 192.168.190 Answer: A C F .78 D.64 C.1.128 E.168.79 B.168.

———-System Configuration Dialog ———Would you like to enter the initial configuration dialog? [yes/no]: . E.3 interface(s) 125K bytes of non-volatile configuration memory. Spanning-tree will need to be used. What can be determined about the router from the console output? 1 FastEthernet/IEEE 802. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy.1Q protocol.9tut. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802. The router will not accept the addressing scheme. What conclusions can be made about this design? A. Answer: C Question 2 Refer to the exhibit. The design will function as intended B. 65536K bytes of ATA PCMCIA card at slot 0 (Sector size 512 bytes) .com/new-ccna-operation-2 Question 1 Refer to the exhibit. The connection between switches should be a trunk. with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. 8192K bytes of Flash internal SIMM (Sector size 256K). D. C. The exhibit represents this design.CCNA – Operation 2 http://www.

B.4320.1. C. Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000. B. No configuration file was found in the PCMCIA card.168.6965. Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.A. Answer: A Question 3 Which command displays CPU utilization? A. show process C. No configuration file was found in NVRAM. show protocols B. . show version Answer: B Question 4 Refer to the exhibit: What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three) A. Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address 192.0c07. No configuration file was found in flash.40. Configuration file is normal and will load in 15 seconds. D.0c36. C. show system D.

40.1. Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of 192. Answer: A C F .D. E.168. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1. F.

2. C.1. Answer: A C E Question 2 Which command reveals the last method used to powercycle a router? A.252.1. The two exhibited devices are the only Cisco devices on the network.CCNA – Show commands http://www. show version . The Manchester serial address is 10.255. The serial network between the two devices has a mask of 255. what three statements are true of these devices? (Choose three) A. show boot C. The London router is a Cisco 2610.255. D. B.1. The CDP information was received on port Serial0/0 of the Manchester router.1. The Manchester serial address is 10.1. The Manchester router is a Cisco 2610. show reload B. Given the output that is shown. F.9tut. show running-config D. The CDP information was sent by port Serial0/0 of the London router.com/new-ccna-show-commands Question 1 Refer to the exhibit. E.

which command would you use to verify which interfaces are affected by the ACL? A. show interface D. show access-lists C. show ip access-lists B. show ip interface E. list ip interface Answer: D .Answer: D Question 3 When you are troubleshooting an ACL issue on a router.

Answer: C Question 2 Refer to the exhibit: . The operational status of the interfaces cannot be determined from the output shown. C. what is the operational status of the interfaces of R2 as indicated by the command output shown? A. Two interfaces have problems. B.CCNA – Troubleshooting http://www.com/new-ccna-troubleshooting Question 1 Refer to the exhibit: Assuming that the entire network topology is shown. The interfaces are functioning correctly.9tut. D. One interface has a problem.

The no shutdown command has not been entered for the port. Answer: C Question 3 Refer to the exhibit: .Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on AlSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q-complaint trunk to another switch. even thought the proper cabling has been attached? A. What is the reason the trunk does not form. An IP address must be configured for the port. E. The correct encapsulation type has not been configured. B. C. VLANs have not been created yet. The port is currently configured for access mode. D. Based on the output shown.

The passwords do not match on the two routers. what are two possible reasons for the failure? (Choose two) A. The routers cannot be connected from interface S0/0 to interface S0/0. CHAP authentication cannot be used on a serial interface. C. With CHAP authentication.3. What is the cause of the problem? A.168. The encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB does not match the encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterA. The usernames are incorrectly configured on the two routers.168. D.0 are unable to reach hosts in network 192. D.The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. The cable that is connected to S0/0 on RouterA is faulty. The IP address that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB is not in the correct subnet. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is configured with an incorrect subnet mask. B.2. Answer: B Question 4 Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output from RouterA. . Hosts in network 192. Interface S0/0 on RouterB is administratively down. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is not receiving a clock signal from the CSU/DSU. C. one router must authenticate to another router.0. B. E. The routers cannot be configured to authenticate to each other. E. F.

incompatible bandwidth between routers Answer: E Question 7 . A. pingaddress B. but there is no connectivity between them. no loopback set C. tracerouteaddress D.Answer: E F Question 5 Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between hosts that connect through a switch in the same LAN? A. Given the partial configurations. identify the problem on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of connectivity. incompatible encapsulation at each end E. transmission unit size too large B. The Atlanta router is known to have a correct configuration. an incorrect IP address F. tracertaddress C. arpaddress Answer: A Question 6 Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected by their serial interfaces as illustrated. an incorrect subnet mask D.

B. The Fa0/0 interface on RouterA is on a subnet that can‘t be used. The Fa0/0 interface on RouterB is using a broadcast address. The wrong type of cable is connected to the interface. The interface needs to be configured as a DTE device. Assuming routing is properly configured. The interface has been configured with the shutdown command. Answer: D Question 8 Router# show interface s0/0 Serial 0/0/0 is administratively down.Refer to the exhibit. line protocol is down What is the reason that the interface status is ―administratively down. The address of SwitchA is a subnet address. D. HostA cannot ping HostB. The serial interfaces of the routers are not on the same subnet. D. E. HostA is not on the same subnet as its default gateway. Answer: D Question 9 . F. C. The interface is not receiving any keepalives. C. E. There is a mismatch in encapsulation types. B. There is no encapsulation type configured. line protocol down‖? A. what could be the cause of this problem? A.

E.Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator powers down the router and sets it up at a remote location. it enter the system configuration dialog as shown. The router is configured with the boot system startup command. When the router starts. D. The network administrator failed to save the configuration. Answer: A . The boot system flash command is missing from the configuration. A network administrator configures a new router and enters the copy startupconfig running-config on the router. What is the cause of the problem? — System Configuration Dialog — Would you like to enter the initial configuration dialog? [yes/no]: % Please answer yes‘ or ‗no‘. Would you like to enter the initial configuration dialog? [yes/ho]: n Would you like to terminate autoinstall? [yes]: Press RETURN to get started! A. The configuration register is set to 0×2100. C. The configuration register is set to 0×2102. B.

1? A. 2001:0DB8:0:130H::87C:140B D.9tut. FF02::2 C.CCNA – IPv6 http://www. FF02::3 D. 8 D.com/new-ccna-ipv6 Question 1 Which IPv6 address is valid? A. 2000::/3 D. 16 Answer: D Question 4 Which IPv6 address is the all-router multicast group? A. FF02::4 . 2031::130F::9C0:876A:130B Answer: A Question 2 Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface loopback address 127. 2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B B. 4 C. FF02::1 B. 2001:0DB8:0000:130F:0000:0000:08GC:140B C. ::1 B. :: C. 0::/10 Answer: A Question 3 How many bits are contained in each field of an IPv6 address? A.0. 24 B.0.

podcast E. allcast D. enable dual-stack routing Answer: B D F Question 8 . use proxying and translation (NAT-PT) to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets E. use DHCPv6 to map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses D. any-to-many communication model D. one-to-many communication model B. anycast Answer: A E Question 7 Which three approaches can be used while migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an IPv6 scheme? (Choose three) A. a unique IPv6 address for each device in the group E. one-to-nearest communication model C. configure IPv6 directly F. delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device Answer: B E F Question 6 Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two) A.Answer: B Question 5 Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three) A. configuring IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands C. multicast B. static mapping of IPv4 address to IPv6 addresses B. broadcast C. the same address for multiple devices in the group F.

FE81::280f.Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address? A. IPv6 local D. Answer: A D . If a global address is assigned to an interface. FE08::280e:611:a:f14f. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12 C.3d69 B. Global addresses start with 2000::/3 B. IPv6 unicast-routing C. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1 E. then that is the only allowable address for the interface. IPv6 neighbor Answer: B Question 10 Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two) A. Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10 D. FEFE:0345:5f1b::e14d:3d69 Answer: C Question 9 Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a cisco router? A. FE80::380e:611a:e14f:3d69 D.512b:e14f:3d69 C. IPv6 host B.

checksums Answer: B C E Question 2 Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two) A. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1 Answer: D Question 4 What is the alternative notation for the IPV6 address B514:82C3:0000:0000:0029:EC7A:0000:EC72? . Every IPV6 interface contains at least one loopback address. Answer: B C Question 3 Which option is a valid IPv6 address? A. D.com/new-ccna-ipv6-questions-2 Question 1 What are three features of the IPv6 protocol? (Choose three) A. B.CCNA – IPv6 Questions 2 http://www. autoconfiguration C. 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a B. optional IPsec B. complicated header E. 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1 C.9tut. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPV6 addresses of any type. Leading zeros in an IPV6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID. plug-and-play F. no broadcasts D. FEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4 D. C.

B514:82C3:0029:EC7A:EC72 C. ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64 Answer: D Question 7 What is known as ―one-to-nearest‖ addressing in IPv6? A. ipv6 autoconfig D. B514:82C3::0029:EC7A:EC72 Answer: C Question 5 Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection process? A. ipv6 address PREFIX_1::1/64 B.A. B514:82C3:0029::EC7A:0000:EC72 B. 32768: 22-33-44-55-66-77 C. ipv6 autoconfig 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64 C. anycast C. unspecified address Answer: B Question 8 . B514:82C3::0029:EC7A:0:EC72 D. 32769: 11-22-33-44-55-65 D. 32769: 22-33-44-55-66-78 Answer: A Question 6 Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPV6 address to a router interface? A. 32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66 B. global unicast B. multicast D.

The network administrator has been asked to give reasons for moving from IPv4 to IPv6. change of source address in the IPv6 header F. change of destination address in the IPv6 header E. telnet access does not require a password B. nat C. What are two valid reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPv4? (Choose two) A. no broadcast D. autoconfiguration Answer: C F .

Once of the routers is partially configured. Not all of the host addresses on the left are necessary.com/new-ccna-drag-and-drop-1 Question 1: A dental firm is redesigning the network that connects its three locations. you must address the network and at the same time conserver unused addresses for future growth. drag the host addresses on the left to the correct router interface.0 to use for addressing the entire netwok.164. drag each switch IOS command on the left to its purpose on the right . the team is ready to assign the addresses. After subnetting the address.CCNA – Drag and Drop 1 http://www. The administrator plans to configure ip subnet-zero and use RIP v2 as the routing protocol. With those goals in mind. Move your mouse over a router to view its configuration.9tut. Answer: Question 2: In order to complete a basic switch configuration.168. The administrator gave the networking team 192. As a member of the networking team.

33/28.) . Match the access list conditions on the left with the goals on the right.35.34/28. The accounting server has the address of 192. The network interfaces in the topology are addressed as follows: Missouri: e0 – 192. (Not all options on the left are used.168.35.17/28.35. s1 – 192. The Alabama router has two LANs. Missouri users obtain Internet access through the Headquarters router. s0 – 192.65/28. Alabama: e0 – 192.Answer: 1) enable 2) configure terminal 3) hostname 4) Interface vlan 1 5) no shutdown 6) ip address 7) ip default-gateway Question 3: The Missouri branch office router is connected through its s0 interface to the Alabama Headquarters router s1 interface.168. e1 – 192.66/28.35.35.49/28.35.168.168.168.168.

0 0.15 host 192.35.35.0.35. by dragging the appropriate options on the left to their correct placeholders on the right.0 .168.0.0.0.255 host 192.55 0.34 3) 0.16 0.34/27 needs to be denied access to all hosts outside its own subnet.125.168.0 host 192.168. Answer: 1) ip 2) 192.66 2) deny ip 192.0.66 3) permit ip 192.168.168.Answer: 1) deny ip 192.168. To accomplish this.125.66 Question 4: A host with the address of 192.0.35. [access-list 100 deny protocol address mask any].0.35.168.168.35.0. complete the command in brackets.

168.125.Full command: access-list 100 deny ip 192.0.0.0 Question 5: Drag and drop the network user application to the appropriate description of its primary use (not all options are used) Answer: 1) web browser 2) instant message 3) e-mail 4) database 5) collaboration .34 0.

9tut. Drag the items on the right to the proper locations. while the below provides their corresponding router output lines. . Drag the above items to the proper locations. while the right provides some terms.com/new-ccna-drag-and-drop-2 Question 1 The left describes OSI layers. Answer: Network Layer: 1) IP addresses 2) packets 3) routing Transport Layer: 1) windowing 2) UDP 3) segments Question 2 The above describes some categories.CCNA – Drag and Drop 2 http://www.

Answer: 1) Port operational: Serial0/1 is up. line protocol is up 2) Layer 2 problem: Serial0/1 is up. Follow the guide and drag the contents to relevant modules. line protocol is down Question 3 A user is unable to connect to the Internet. line protocol is down 3) Layer 1 problem: Serial0/1 is down. line protocol is down 4) Port disabled: Serial0/1 is administrator down. Answer: 1) Verify Ethernet cable connection: Step 1 2) Verify NIC operation: Step 2 . Based on the layered approach to troubleshooting and beginning with the lowest layer.

. Answer: 1) straight-through: switch access port to router 2) crossover: switch to switch 3) rollover: PC COM port to switch Question 5 The left describes the types of switch ports. while the right describes the purposes of the cables. while the right describes the features.3) Verify IP configuration: Step 3 4) Verify URL: Step 4 Question 4 The left describes the types of cables. Drag the items on the left to the proper locations. Drag the options on the right to the proper locations. (Not all items can be used).

Answer: Access Port: – Carries traffic for a single VLAN – Uses a straight-through cable to connect a device – Connects an end-user workstation to a switch Trunk Port: – Carries traffic for a multiple VLAN – Uses 802. Answer: – Learning: populating the MAC address table but not forwarding data frames – Forwarding: sending and receiving data frames – Listening: preparing to forward data frames without populating the MAC address table – Blocking: preventing the use of looped paths . while the below describes their functions.1q to identify traffic from different VLANs – Facilitates interVLAN communications when connected to a Layer 3 device Question 6 The above describes the Spanning-Tree Protocol port states. Drag the above items to the proper locations.

Consider the packets as they leave RA interface Fa0/0 forwards RB. Question 2 Refer to the exhibit.CCNA – Drag and Drop 3 http://www. (Not all options are used) Answer: 1) VTY password: remote access to device console 2) console password: access to the console 0 line 3) access-group: access to connected networks or resources 4) service password-encryption: viewing of passwords 5) enable secret: access to privileged mode The unselected left-box – CHAP – is used to verify the identity of the peer by means of a three-way handshake.9tut. Drag the correct frame and packet address to their places in the table.com/new-ccna-drag-and-drop-3 Question 1 Drag the security features on the left to the specific security risks they help protect against on the right. . PC-A is sending packets to the FTP server.

the interface should shut down.250 Question 3 As a network administrator.Answer: Source MAC: 0000.16. If that policy is violated.9999 Destination MAC: 0000. you are required to configure the network security policy.21. .16.34. And the policy requires that only one host be permitted to attach dynamically to each switch interface.7 Destination IP: 172. Which two commands must the network administrator configure on the 2950 Catalyst switch to meet this policy? Please choose appropriate commands and drag the items to the proper locations.3333 Source IP: 172.0C89.0C93.

Drag the items on the left to the proper locations.Answer: Appropriate commands: SW(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1 SW(config-if)# switchport port-security violation shutdown Question 4 The left describes boot sequence. . while the right describes the orders.

255. .1.1. 4) Step 4: The configuration file is loaded from NVRAM.2 Local(config)# ip route 10.1. the setup dialog initiates.0.0.255.0 0.0 255.2. Routing has been configured on the local router with these commands: Local(config)# ip route 0. Drag the items to the proper locations.168. 2) Step 2: The bootstrap loader in ROM executes.0 255.0.0 192.3.168.0 192.0.0. 5) Step 5: If no configuration file is located.1 Local(config)# ip route 10.0.0 192.Answer: 1) Step 1: The power on self test executes. 3) Step 3: The IOS is located and loaded based on boot system commands in NVRAM. Question 5 Drag and Drop question.0.255.3 Drag each destination IP address on the top to its correct next hop address at the bottom.168.

0 from multiple sources.1.4.168.2.3 + 10.10 + 10. .0.1.6 Question 6 If a Cisco router has learned about network 10. the router will select and install only one entry into the routing table.1.168.4 Next hop 192.1.1.1.1: + 10.2.6.8.1.0.123 Next hop 192.2: + 10.Answer: Next hop 192.3.168.1.3: + 10.14 + 10. Indicate the order of preference that the router will use by dragging the routes on the left to the order of preference category on the right.1.

0/24 [120/3] via 10.1.1.2.1.1 1. Senal0 .0/24 [90/2172416] via 10.1.1.0/24 [1/0] via 10.5.1.1.0/24 [ 110/789] via 10.5. Serial0 5) Fifth preference: R 10.1.3.3.Answer: 1) First preference: S 10. Serial0 4) Fourth preference: O 10.1.1.2 3) Third preference: D 10.0 is directly connected.1. Serial1 2) Second preference: S 10.1.1.1.

(Not all functions are used) Answer: 1) antispyware: detects software designed to capture sensitive information and removes it from the computer 2) antivirus: prevents known malicious programs from being installed on workstations 3) IDS: identifies malicious network traffic and alerts network personnel 4) firewall: filters traffic based on source and destination IP address or traffic type Question 2 Drag the Frame Relay acronym on the left to match its definition on the right. (Not all acronyms are used) .CCNA – Drag and Drop 4 http://www.com/new-ccna-drag-and-drop-4 Question 1 Drag the function on the left to the matching security appliance or application on the right.9tut.

Answer: . Drag the items on the left to the proper locations.Answer: 1) a router is this type of device: DTE 2) the most common type of virtual circuit: PVC 3) provides status messages between DTE and DCE devices: LMI 4) identifies the virtual connection between the DTE and the switch: DLCI Question 3 The left describes some types of connections while the right describes some types of cables.

Answer: .Question 4 The above provides some descriptions. Drag the above items to the proper locations. while the below provides some routing protocols.

Answer: .Question 5 As a CCNA candidate. you are required to have a firm understanding of the OSI model. At which layers of the OSI model do Wide Area Networks operate in? Please drag the items to the proper locations.

.

9tut.com/new-ccna-drag-and-drop-5 Question 1 Drag the Cisco default administrative distance to the appropriate routing protocol or route (Not all options are used) Answer: + RIP: 120 + OSPF: 110 + static route referencing IP address of next hop: 1 + internal EIGRP route: 90 + directly connected network: 0 Question 2 Drag the term on the left to its definition on the right (not all options are used) .CCNA – Drag and Drop 5 http://www.

causing network routers to update their topological databases and recalculate routes + split horizon: This prevents sending information about a routeback out the same interface that originally learned about the route + holddown timer: For a given period. this causes the router to ignore any updates with poorer metrics to a lost network Question 3 Drag the description on the left to the correct router mode on the right Answer: .Answer: + poison reverse: A router learns from its neighbor that a route is down and the router sends an update back to the neighbor with an infinite metric to that route + LSA: The packets flooded when a topology change occurs.

Complete the network diagram by dragging the correct device name or description to the correct location. Not all the names or descriptions will be used.+ user EXEC mode: limited to basic monitoring commands + privileged EXEC mode: provide access to all other router commands + global configuration mode: commands that affect the entire system + specific configuration mode: commands that affect interfaces/processes only + setup mode: interactive configuration dialog Question 4 Drag each definition on the left to the matching term on the right Answer: + cost: a configurable value based by default on the bandwidth of the interface + load: the amount of activity on a network resource + bandwidth: the data capacity of a link + hop count: the number of point-to-point links in a transmission path + reliability: usually refers to the bit error rate of each network link + delay: the amount of time required to move a packet from source to destination Question 5 Refer to the exhibit. .

Question 6 Drag each feature on the left to the appropriate routing protocol on the right. Digital Line.Answer: From left to right: Router. . DCE. CSU/DSU Synchronous. DTE. WAN Service Provider Network.

Answer: RIP version 1 + sends frequent updates + less complex configuration + susceptible to routing loops + exchanges full routing table in updates OSPF: + faster convergence + uses only event-triggered updates + same topology information held by all routers + requires more memory and processing power Question 7 Drag item on left to match item on right .

mask any eq port].address 0. (Not all options are used) .5.Answer: + Point to Point Advantage: Quality + Point to Point Disadvantage: Limited Flexibility + Circuit Switched Advantage: Cost + Circuit Switched Disadvantage: Low speed + Packet Switch Advantage: Efficient + Packet Switch Disadvantage: More Complex Question 8 All hosts in the same subnet with 172.0. To complete the bracketed command.5. drag each appropriate option on the left to its proper placeholder on the right.16.0.118/26 must be denied Telnet access to hosts outside the LAN (u need to just drag & drop) fill out the command.16. [access-list list-number deny tcp 172.

Answer: + list-number: 128 + address: 64 + mask: 63 + port: 23 .

R2 and R3 with serial links.4.4/32.0. and the network command is missing on R4.6/32 are not appearing in the routing table of R5.4. Answer: B Question 2 Which path does traffic take from R1 to R5? A. . D. The interfaces are shutdown. SW1 and SW2 are also connected to the routers R4 and R5.9tut.com/eigrp-troubleshooting-sim Question Refer to the topology.0. R2 and R3 are connected to the switches SW1 and SW2. The traffic goes through R2.4. Question 1 The loopback interfaces on R4 with the IP addresses of 10. so only the 10. respectively. 10. Why are the interfaces missing? A. R4 has been incorrectly configured to be in another AS. The loopback addresses haven‘t been advertised. Your company has connected the routers R1. B. The EIGRP routing protocol is configured. Automatic summarization is enabled. The traffic goes through R3.EIGRP Troubleshooting Sim http://www. C. You are required to troubleshoot and resolve the EIGRP issues between the various routers. B. Use the appropriate show commands to troubleshoot the issues.4.0 network is displayed.4.4. so it does not peer with R5.5/32 and 10. so they are not being advertised.

The AS does not match.. D.55. The traffic is unequally load-balanced over R2 and R3. Answer: C Question 4 Study the following output taken on R1: R1#ping 10. B. B.1. D.1.1. Sending 5.1 Type escape sequence to abort. D.5. timeout is 2 seconds: Packet sent with a source address of 10. The passive-interface command is enabled. Success rate is 0 percent (0/5) Why are the pings failing? A. Answer: C ... Answer: A Question 3 Router R6 does not form an EIGRP neighbor relationship correctly with router R1. C.C. What is the cause for this misconfiguration? A. 100-byte ICMP Echos to 10.5.1 . The network statement is missing on R1. The network statement is missing on R5.1.55 source 10. The network command is missing.5.5. The traffic is equally load-balanced over R2 and R3. The loopback interface is shut down on R5. The K values mismatch. The IP address that is configured on the Lo1 interface on R5 is incorrect. C..

The R3 router ID is configured on R4.OSPF Neighbor Sim http://www.com/ospf-neighbor-sim Question Refer to the topology. a password mismatch. . Question 1 An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R4 in the Branch1 office. an encapsulation mismatch on serial links. C. Answer: A Question 2 An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R5 in the Branch2 office. Your company has decided to connect the main office with three other remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links. What is causing the problem? A. D. B. There is an area ID mismatch. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch. There is a PPP authentication issue. There is a Layer 2 issue. You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues between the main office and the routers located in the remote branch offices. B. There is an area ID mismatch.9tut. What is causing the problem? A.

B. the username is not configured on R3 and R6. There is an area ID mismatch. Configure no shutdown command. R2 ethernet0/1 and R3 ethernet0/0 are configured with a non-default OSPF hello interval of 25. The R3 router ID is configured on R6. Enable OSPF for R1 ethernet0/1. B. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch. configure no ip ospf hello-interval 25 C. There is a missing network command in the OSPF process on R5. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch. There is a PPP authentication issue. Which option would fix the issue? A. Answer: C Question 3 R1 does not form an OSPF neighbor adjacency with R2. D. R1 ethernet0/1 is shutdown.C. configure no ip ospf hello-interval 25 D. What is causing the problem? A. R1 ethernet0/1 configured with a non-default OSPF hello interval of 25. Answer: D . C. configure ip ospf 1 area 0 command under ethernet0/1 Answer: B Question 4 An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R6 in the Branch3 office. D.

Notice: All the images in this VTP LAB are used for demonstration only.com_CCNA_vtp_sim. This does not require any configuration.9tut. Question 1 What interface did Sw-AC3 associate with source MAC address 0010. After answering the first question. If you click ―Next‖ at the first question.ffba ? a) Fa0/1 b) Fa0/3 c) Fa0/6 .pka Note: In this VTP sim. you will lose points for 4 remaining questions. You can download this sim to practice here (but notice that this sim is not perfect. To answer the multiple-choice questions. only for practicing purpose): http://www.9tut.com/80-ccna-vtp-sim-question Question This task requires you to use the CLI of Sw-AC3 to answer five multiple-choice questions. click on the numbered boxes in the right panel. There are five multiple-choice questions with this task.5a0c. click on the number boxes to move to other questions. you will see slightly different images in the real CCNA exam.com/download/9tut.CCNA VTP SIM Question http://www. Be sure to answer all five questions before leaving this item. you have to answer 5 questions.

Fa0/9 and Fa0/12 Question 3 What kind of router is VLAN-R1? a) 1720 b) 1841 c) 2611 d) 2620 Answer: 2620 Question 4 Which switch is the root bridge for VLAN 1? .d) Fa0/8 e) Fa0/9 f) Fa0/12 Answer: Fa 0/8 Question 2 What ports on Sw-AC3 are operating has trunks (choose three)? a) Fa0/1 b) Fa0/3 c) Fa0/4 d) Fa0/6 e) Fa0/9 f) Fa0/12 Answer: Fa0/3.

Answer: Sw-DS1 Question 5 What address should be configured as the default-gateway for the host connected to interface fa 0/4 of SW-Ac3? Answer: 192. SwX was taken out of the production network for maintenance.5a0c.e612? (Choose three) . Management. What happens to the network when it is reconnected and a trunk exists between the two switches? A – All VLANs except the default VLAN will be removed from all switches B – All existing switches will have the students. Production. faculty. Management. Servers. Production and no-where will be removed from existing switches Question 8 Out of which ports will a frame be forwarded that has source mac-address 0010.8a47.254 Question 6 From which switch did Sw-Ac3 receive VLAN information ? Answer: Sw-AC2 Question 7 Refer to the exibit.168. and no-where VLANs C – The VLANs Servers.44. Management.fd86 and destination mac-address 000a. Production and no-where will replace the VLANs on SwX D – The VLANs Servers. It will be reconnected to the Fa 0/16 port of Sw-Ac3. admin.

23.242.com/70-ccna-access-list-sim .0.168.33.242.com/78-ccna-access-list-sim-2 Question Security is being added to the Corp1 router. all other traffic should be allowed.9tut.168.65 The computers in the Hosts LAN have been assigned addresses of 192.196.168.33.5 (or any ip that is not on the same subnet) what will be the destination MAC address? CCNA Access List Sim 2 http://www.2.168.33.17 – 172.9tut.17 CCNA Access List Sim http://www. No other hosts from the LAN nor the Core should be able to use a web browser to access this server.168. The task is to create and apply a numbered access-list with no more than three statements that will allow ONLY host C web access to the Finance Web Server. All other traffic is permitted.242. Access to the router CLI can be gained by clicking on the appropriate host.33. The user on host C should be able to use a web browser to access financial information from the Finance Web Server.22.1 Host B 192.168.2 Host C 192.4 The servers in the Server LAN have been assigned addresses of 172.33.22. No other hosts will have web access to the Finance Web Server.22.1 – 192.242.3 Host D 192.33. Since there are multiple resources for the corporation at this location including other resources on the Finance Web Server. The Core connection uses an IP address of 198.22.18.254 Host A 192.30 The Finance Web Server is assigned an IP address of 172. All passwords have been temporarily set to ―cisco‖. The Public Web Server is assigned an IP address of 172.A – Fa0/8 B – Fa0/3 C – Fa0/1 D – Fa0/12 Answer: B C D Question 9 If one of the host connected to Sw-AC3 wants to send something for the ip 190.

Question

An administrator is trying to ping and telnet from Switch to Router with the results shown below:
Switch>
Switch> ping 10.4.4.3
Type escape sequence to abort.
Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 10.4.4.3,timeout is 2 seconds:
.U.U.U
Success rate is 0 percent (0/5)
Switch>
Switch> telnet 10.4.4.3
Trying 10.4.4.3 …
% Destination unreachable; gateway or host down
Switch>
Click the console connected to Router and issue the appropriate commands to answer the questions.

CCNA NAT SIM Question 2
http://www.9tut.com/57-ccna-nat-sim-question-2
Question

You work as a network technician at 9tut.com. Study the exhibit
carefully. You are required to perform configurations to enable
Internet access. The Router ISP has given you six public IP
addresses in the 198.18.32.65 198.18.32.70/29 range.
9tut.com has 62 clients that needs to have simultaneous internet
access. These local hosts use private IP addresses in the
192.168.6.65 – 192.168.6.126/26 range.
You need to configure Router1 using the PC1 console.
You have already made basic router configuration. You have also
configured the appropriate NAT interfaces; NAT inside and NAT
outside respectively.
Now you are required to finish the configuration of Router1.

CCNA Implementation SIM
http://www.9tut.com/66-ccna-implementation-sim
This topology contains 3 routers and 1 switch. Complete the topology.
Drag the appropriate device icons to the labeled Device
Drag the appropriate connections to the locations labeled Connections.
Drag the appropriate IP addresses to the locations labeled IP address
(Hint: use the given host addresses and Main router information)
To remove a device or connection, drag it away from the topology.
Use information gathered from the Main router to complete the configuration of any
additional routers. No passwords are required to access the Main router. The config terminal
command has been disabled for the HQ router. The router does not require any configuration.
Configure each additional router with the following:
Configure the interfaces with the correct IP address and enable the interfaces.
Set the password to allow console access to consolepw
Set the password to allow telnet access to telnetpw
Set the password to allow privilege mode access to privpw
Note: Because routes are not being added to the configurations, you will not be able to ping
through the internetwork.
All devices have cable autosensing capabilities disabled.
All hosts are PC‘s

CCNA EIGRP LAB Question
http://www.9tut.com/64-ccna-eigrp-lab-question
Question
After adding R3 router, no routing updates are being exchanged between R3 and the new location.
All other inter connectivity and Internet access for the existing locations of the company are working
properly.
The task is to identify the fault(s) and correct the router configuration to provide full connectivity
between the routers.
Access to the router CLI can be gained by clicking on the appropriate host. All passwords on all
routers are cisco.
IP addresses are listed in the chart below.

168.60.60.34 Fa0/1: 192.14 R3 Fa0/0: 192.60.113 S0/0: 192.81 R4 Fa0/0: 192.168.60.36.97 Fa0/1: 192.0.13 R2 Fa0/0: 192. Find the information you need by using the router console attached to the R-CENTER router. interface types.168.129 Fa0/1: 192.77. .60.com/65-ccna-drag-and-drop-sim-question Question You have been hired by Specialty Hardware Incorporated to document the layout of the network.R1 Fa0/0: 192. and IP addresses to the graphic .168.168.26 CCNA Drag and Drop SIM Question http://www. Complete the following tasks: Complete the network topology shown in the graphic by dragging the labels below with the appropriate router types.25 S0/0: 192.145 S0/1: 192.168.33 S1/0: 198.36.6 S0/1: 192.168.77.168.60.168.168.18.168.60.60.65 Fa1/0: 192.168.9tut.

CCNA Configuration SIM Question http://www.com/59-ccna-configuration-sim-question Question: To configure the router (R2-RC) click on the console host icon that is connected to a router by a serial console cable (shown in the diagram as a dashed black line) .9tut.

17 – 192. Configuration information router name – Weaver inside global addresses – 198. Name of the router is xxx 2.30/28 number of inside hosts – 14 .110.0.184. Name of the router is R2-RC Enable-secret password is cisco1 The password to access user EXEC mode using the console is cisco2 The password to allow telnet access to the router is cisco3 IPV4 addresses must be configured as follows: Ethernet network 209. Enable-secret password is xxx 3.202.com/52-ccna-nat-sim-question Question A network associate is configuring a router for the CCNA Training company to provide internet access. Router protocol is RIP V2 Attention : In practical examinations. Complete the network installation by performing the initial router configurations and configuring RIPV2 routing using the router command line interface (CLI) on the R2-RC. The ISP has provided the company six public IP addresses of 198.17 – 192.100.105 198.18. The task is to complete the NAT configuration using all IP addresses assigned by the ISP to provide Internet access for the hosts in the Weaver LAN.184.30.9tut.16/28 – router has last assignable host address in the subnet. Functionality can be tested by clicking on the host provided for testing.184. Interfaces should be enabled.165. The hosts in the CCNA Training company LAN have been assigned private space addresses in the range of 192. 1. please note the following. The password to allow telnet access to the router is xxx 5.18.128/27 – router has last assignable host address in subnet Serial network is 192.184.18.168.18.100.168. IP information CCNA NAT SIM Question 1 http://www.100.2.100. the actual information will prevail.105 198. Password to access user EXEC mode using the console is xxx 4.110/29 inside local addresses – 192.168. The company has 14 hosts that need to access the internet simultaneously.CCNA Training Company recently installed a new router in their office.168.

) – All passwords have been temporarily set to ―cisco‖ . no routing protocol will be required.The following have already been configured on the router: – The basic router configuration – The appropriate interfaces have been configured for NAT inside and NAT outside – The appropriate static routes have also been configured (since the company will be a stub network.

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